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News reference/source dates are verified for 125 of 225 English articles in this list. Articles without a verified source date appear last. Use publication-date view to find every article by its original publication date. Publication dates have not been changed.
Noida-Greater Noida Metro Aqua Line Extension: Cabinet Approval, Rs 2,390 Crore, 5 Stations
Read the full article →Evening Courts in Delhi, Bihar and Andhra Pradesh: Pilot Project to Cut Case Backlog
Read the full article →RBI's LRS Proposal: Rs 50 Lakh Annual Sub-Limit on Certain Remittances
Read the full article →India-Canada CEPA: Sixth Round of Trade Pact Talks Under Way, Conclusion Targeted by PM's Canada Visit
Read the full article →Retail Inflation at 6.09% in October: Two-Year High, Above RBI Tolerance Limit
Read the full article →Retail Inflation at 6.09% in October: Two-Year High, Above RBI Tolerance Limit
Read the full article →NIA Probe: Online Radicalisation of Indian Youths by Pak Gangster Shahzad Bhatti Network
Read the full article →Sairang Express Derailment: Questions for Railway Safety
Read the full article →CCPI 2027: India Slips to 28th in Climate Performance Index
Read the full article →Delhi's First Electric Cruise on Yamuna: Namo River Safari
Read the full article →APEC Shenzhen: Possible US-China-Russia Trilateral Meeting
Read the full article →Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan at Six: Achievements and Gaps
Read the full article →Farm Fires: Why India Still Lacks a Burnt-Area Protocol
Read the full article →Bherjan-Borajan-Padumoni: 1-km Eco-Sensitive Zone Proposed
Read the full article →PM2.5 'Severe' at 70% of Monitoring Stations After Diwali
Read the full article →Janjatiya Gaurav Divas: Birsa Munda's 151st Birth Anniversary
Read the full article →Ranivas Mound in Bihar Now a Site of National Importance
Read the full article →Ningol Chakouba: Manipur's Festival of Married Daughters
Read the full article →Coal Gasification Scheme: Third Round of Applications Opens
Read the full article →Stand-Up India Scheme Extended to 2031 With Rs 4,111 Crore Corpus
Read the full article →Tiger Found Dead in Navegaon-Nagzira; Electrocution Suspected
Read the full article →Norway Moves to Ban Generative AI Use in Primary Schools
Read the full article →Wangala Festival Golden Jubilee: 1,000-Drum World Record Bid
Read the full article →Tamil Nadu's growing industrial water challenge: threat to investment appeal
Read the full article →Reforming stamp duty and registration fees: undervaluation and black money paradox
Read the full article →New plea on the Transgender Act: gender identity vs biological sex debate
Read the full article →Gold ETF: inflows down 22% to Rs 3,474 crore in October, silver ETFs up 56.6%
Read the full article →GreenJoules: India's largest agriwaste-to-bio-crude plant, Rs 250 crore funding
Read the full article →Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2027: 19th convention in Kolkata, 7-9 January
Read the full article →Chimpanzee communication: first evidence of learned vocal conventions (PNAS study)
Read the full article →CGFMU extended five years: Mudra loan guarantee till March 2031
Read the full article →Haryana: chargesheet in SC/ST cases within 60 days, special courts in 5 districts
Read the full article →Kedarnath portals closing for winter; deity's palanquin to Ukhimath
Read the full article →INS Betwa re-powering: Rs 498.58 crore contract with Cochin Shipyard
Read the full article →Mutual funds: Rs 1.73 lakh crore net inflow in October, equity inflows down 14%
Read the full article →Kulgam terror attack: three CRPF personnel injured, major search operation
Read the full article →Parandur airport project scrapped: a boost for Vedanthangal-Karikili Ramsar sites
Read the full article →India-France: first Economic Security and Critical Technologies Dialogue and third Space Dialogue in Paris
Read the full article →G7 Foreign Ministers' Paris declaration: China's actions east of Taiwan a threat to stability
Read the full article →Moody's raises India's FY27 growth forecast to 7% from 6.5%
Read the full article →GW250114: the clearest gravitational-wave signal so far, Hawking's area theorem verified
Read the full article →Ten Years of Swachh Survekshan: From Competition to Institutional Change in Urban Sanitation
Read the full article →The 15th Edition of Naseem Al Bahr: India-Oman Maritime Partnership and the MAHASAGAR Vision
Read the full article →Sea Vigil-26: Fifth Edition of the Pan-India Coastal Defence Exercise, 11-19 November
Read the full article →National Tribal Literary Festival: In New Delhi on 12-13 November, Part of the Gaurav Pakhwada
Read the full article →IMNEX-26: Eighth Edition of the India-Myanmar Naval Exercise in Visakhapatnam
Read the full article →Visakhapatnam Port Promenade: Rs 560 Crore Package of New Projects, Record 91.17 Million Tonnes of Cargo
Read the full article →PM's Karnataka-Gujarat Visit (13-14 November): Over Rs 15,600 Crore Projects in Bengaluru, S-VYASA Golden Jubilee and COSMOS-Mysuru
Read the full article →NBS for Rabi 2026-27: Rs 62,370 Crore Subsidy on P&K Fertilisers, DAP Stays at Rs 1,350 per Bag
Read the full article →Yuge Yugeen Bharat Museum: World's Largest Museum by Display Area to Come Up in North-South Block at Rs 3,230 Crore
Read the full article →Karnataka SC/ST Quota Row: SLP in Supreme Court Against HC Verdict Quashing 56% Reservation
Read the full article →Legacy Landfills: Deadline to Clear All Dumpsites Extended to December 2027, 1,139 Lakh Tonnes of Waste Remaining
Read the full article →Telangana's 10+2 Model: Intermediate Colleges to Go, Classes 11-12 to Move into Schools from 2027-28
Read the full article →Delhi's Air: Firecrackers Still a Notable PM2.5 Source Three Days After Diwali, AQI May Turn 'Severe' by Friday
Read the full article →West Bengal: Panchayat property tax collection up 168%, GST revenue 17% higher in October
Read the full article →Shashi Tharoor's proposal: dual citizenship for OCIs - the law versus identity debate
Read the full article →CEC recommends phasing out unsustainable river sand mining in three years; dam desiltation as alternative
Read the full article →DGFT bars export of lithium-ion battery waste containing black mass with immediate effect
Read the full article →November 2026
Ladakh Hill Council Elections: 8 Councils, 100 Seats and a First for Women's Reservation
Read the full article →View the practice questions
Question 1: With reference to the LAHDC elections 2026, consider the following statements:
I. Delimitation of 100 elected constituencies across the eight councils has been notified.
II. 36 seats have been reserved for women.
III. Polling for the councils will be held on 21 November 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement I is correct: 100 elected constituencies have been notified under the LAHDC (Amendment) Regulation, 2026; councillor strength rose from 52 to 100.
- Statement II is correct: 36 of the 100 seats are reserved for women, for the first time.
- Statement III is incorrect: council polling is on 4 December 2026; 21 November is the date for panchayat and municipal polls.
Question 2: The new structure of Ladakh's hill councils (8 councils, 100 councillors) has been notified under which instrument?
(a) The LAHDC (Amendment) Regulation, 2026
(b) The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019
(c) The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
(d) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
The delimitation of 100 elected constituencies was notified under the LAHDC (Amendment) Regulation, 2026. The Sixth Schedule does not apply to Ladakh (it is a pending demand), and the 73rd Amendment concerns panchayats - the new councils will receive District Panchayat powers under it, but the constituting instrument is the Regulation.
November 2026
COP31 High-Level Segment: Who Came, Who Stayed Away - The Exam Angle
Read the full article →View the practice questions
Question 1: With reference to COP31, consider the following statements:
I. It is being held in Antalya, Türkiye, from 9 to 20 November 2026.
II. No leader from any G7 country took part in the high-level segment.
III. China is represented by Vice President Han Zheng.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
- Statement I is correct: the conference runs 9-20 November 2026 in Antalya, Türkiye.
- Statement II is incorrect: British Prime Minister Andy Burnham is the only G7 leader attending, so one G7 leader is present.
- Statement III is correct: Vice President Han Zheng represents China in place of President Xi Jinping.
Question 2: What is the declared target of the voluntary electrification initiative championed by host Türkiye?
(a) 50% share of electricity in global energy consumption by 2030
(b) 35% share of electricity in global energy consumption by 2035
(c) Full electrification of all G7 countries by 2040
(d) A complete global ban on fossil fuels by 2035
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
The initiative aims to raise electricity's share of global energy consumption to 35% by 2035 through electrification of transport, buildings and industry. It is voluntary; there is no ban and no G7-only target.
Question 3: The Tropical Forests Forever Facility (TFFF) is related to:
(a) Financing for tropical forest conservation
(b) Space-based climate satellites
(c) Regulation of ocean fisheries
(d) Certified sustainable aviation fuel
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
TFFF is a financing facility for tropical forest conservation; a meeting on it is scheduled alongside COP31's high-level session.
November 2026
Lavi Fair 2026: Medieval Trade-Route Heritage and Today's Cultural Identity
Read the full article →View the practice questions
Question 1: Consider the following statements about the Lavi fair:
I. It is associated with Rampur Bushahr in Himachal Pradesh.
II. Rampur Bushahr is situated on the left bank of the Sutlej river.
III. It is an event linked only to the tradition of maritime trade.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statements I and II are correct. The Rampur municipal council's account confirms the location and the river.
- Statement III is incorrect: Lavi's trading heritage is tied to Himalayan land routes and Bushahr-Tibet relations, not to maritime trade alone.
Question 2: Which of the following groups best matches the traditional trading identity of the Lavi fair?
(a) Petroleum, ships and sea salt
(b) Wool, dry fruits and local handicrafts
(c) Only information-technology services
(d) Only space-launch equipment
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
The municipal council's account lists products such as wool, pashmina, dry fruits, horses and local handicrafts. The other options do not describe the fair's stated trading identity.
Syllabus mapping:
Prelims: Indian culture and geography - fairs, river banks, historical trade routesUPSC Mains Result 2026: 2,526 Qualify for Next Stage, Application Update from 11 to 25 November
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to the Union Public Service Commission, consider the following statements:
1. Article 315 of the Constitution provides for Public Service Commissions for the Union and the States.
2. The chapter concerning Public Service Commissions includes Articles 315 to 323.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2.
Chapter II of Part XIV of the Constitution concerns Public Service Commissions. It begins with Article 315 on provision for the Commissions, while Article 323 concerns their reports.
November 2026
A Century of Chess: Anuj Shrivatri becomes India's 100th Grandmaster
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements:
I. Anuj Shrivatri became India's 100th Grandmaster by winning the ASEAN+ Individual Open Championship in the Philippines
II. He is the first Grandmaster from Madhya Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c). Both statements are correct - on 8 November 2026, Anuj Shrivatri won the 7th ASEAN+ Individual Open in Ozamiz City (the Philippines) to become India's 100th and Madhya Pradesh's first Grandmaster.
Question 2. With reference to the Grandmaster (GM) title in chess, consider the following statements:
I. The title is awarded by the International Chess Federation (FIDE)
II. The conventional route requires three norms and an Elo rating of 2500
III. Viswanathan Anand received this title in 1988
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d). All three statements are correct - FIDE awards the title, the conventional route needs three norms (over 27 games) and a 2500 Elo rating, and Viswanathan Anand became India's first Grandmaster in 1988.
Question 3. Who recently became India's 98th and 99th Grandmasters?
(a) S. Aswath and V.S. Rathanvel
(b) Divya Deshmukh and Ayush Sharma
(c) Nitish Belurkar and Neelash Saha
(d) R. Praggnanandhaa and D. Gukesh
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a). Just before Anuj Shrivatri, S. Aswath had become the 98th and V.S. Rathanvel the 99th Grandmaster.
November 2026
The Siddi Tribe and the Dakar Youth Olympics: Key Exam Facts
Read the full article →November 2026
Safe Harbour and Section 79: The Shreya Singhal Judgment and IT Rules Facts
Read the full article →November 2026
COP31 begins: for the first time, one country hosts while another captains the talks
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The formal presidency and hosting of COP31 rests with Türkiye, while the conduct of the formal negotiations rests with Australia
Statement II: Alongside COP31, meetings of the Kyoto Protocol's CMP21 and the Paris Agreement's CMA8 will also be held
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Statement I is correct. Türkiye is the host and formal president, while 'exclusive authority' over the negotiations rests with Australia; this is the first such COP.
Statement II is correct. CMP21 (Kyoto) and CMA8 (Paris) meetings will also be held in Antalya alongside COP31.
2. With reference to India's third Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC, 2031-2035), consider the following statements:
Statement I: It targets a 47 per cent reduction in the emission intensity of GDP by 2035 from 2005 levels
Statement II: It targets raising the share of non-fossil sources in installed power capacity to 60 per cent by 2035
Statement III: It targets creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5-3.0 billion tonnes of CO2-equivalent through forest and tree cover
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Statement I is correct. The 2030 target of 45 per cent has been raised to 47 per cent for 2035.
Statement II is correct. The 2030 target of 50 per cent has already been met; the new target is 60 per cent by 2035.
Statement III is incorrect. The new target is 3.5-4.0 billion tonnes of CO2-equivalent; 2.5-3.0 billion tonnes was the earlier target.
3. With reference to the 'Global Mutirão' and the 'Baku-to-Belém Roadmap', consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Global Mutirão is the implementation package adopted at COP30 (Belém, Brazil)
Statement II: The Baku-to-Belém Roadmap aims to mobilise at least $1.3 trillion a year in climate finance for developing countries by 2035 from public and private sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Statement I is correct. 'Global Mutirão' means 'collective effort'; this is the package Antalya inherits.
Statement II is correct. It builds on the $300-billion-a-year goal agreed at COP29 (Baku).
November 2026
Prorogation: The Difference Between a Sitting and a Session
Read the full article →November 2026
China’s Export Controls: TBMs and India’s Supply Chain
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Consider the following statements:
1. An intermediate good can be an input in manufacturing another good.
2. A capital good can be a means used in production, such as a machine.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Classification depends on use. Resin can be an input in plastic manufacturing, and a manufacturing machine a capital good. A high price alone is not the basis for classification.
2. With reference to solar manufacturing, consider the following statements:
1. The usual silicon-based value chain runs from polysilicon to ingots, wafers, cells and modules.
2. Domestic module-assembly capacity necessarily proves complete self-reliance in wafers and manufacturing machines.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Domestic capacity can differ across links. Final module assembly may depend on imported cells, materials or machines.
November 2026
The E20 Petrol Dispute: Quality Testing and Consumer Trust
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to ethanol blending in petrol, consider the following statements:
1. E20 generally means a petrol blend containing about 20% ethanol by volume.
2. The existence of a policy target for ethanol blending automatically certifies the quality of every retail sample.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
E20 is the name of a blend. Actual fuel quality requires proper sampling and standard testing; a policy target does not by itself certify every sample.
2. With reference to reliability in fuel testing, consider the following statements:
1. The chain of custody records the handling of a sample from collection to testing.
2. When samples from different times and places yield conflicting results, the method and comparability must be examined.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Sealing, custody, counter-samples and the prescribed test method make a result verifiable. Results from different sample groups do not directly provide a final conclusion without checking comparability.
November 2026
Ten Years of Demonetisation: Cash and Digital Payments
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to the 2016 demonetisation, consider the following statements:
1. The decision withdrew the legal tender status of specified ₹500 and ₹1,000 notes of the then Mahatma Gandhi Series.
2. Because of this decision, every new-series ₹500 note circulating today has also lost its legal tender status.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: The decision announced on 8 November 2016 concerned the specified banknotes then in circulation. Withdrawal of legal tender status for ordinary payments and facilities for deposit or exchange under announced rules are different things. Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision concerning the old specified notes of 2016 does not invalidate current new-series ₹500 notes.
2. With reference to measuring cash and digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. Cash in circulation on a particular date is a stock, while the value of a full month’s UPI transactions is a flow.
2. The same money can form part of several UPI transactions in a month.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 1 is correct: A stock measures the position at a point in time, while a flow measures activity over a period; their time references differ. Statement 2 is correct: The same rupee may be used in payments many times. Total payment value therefore should not be equated with an identical amount of new production or GDP.
November 2026
Delhi-NCR’s Air Pollution: The Challenge Beyond GRAP
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Consider the following statements:
1. OCEMS helps monitor emissions from industrial sources.
2. A PTZ camera is a complete substitute for an instrument that measures pollutant concentrations.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
OCEMS monitors source-based emissions. A PTZ camera helps visual monitoring; it does not replace an instrument that measures pollutant concentrations.
2. With reference to industrial pollution monitoring, consider the following statements:
1. An installed monitoring system being offline proves that emissions are zero.
2. It is not appropriate to apply the violation rate among units sending data directly to every industry.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
An offline system does not establish the volume of emissions. Units sending data are not necessarily a representative sample of all industries.
October 2026
Bihar Museum: A New Identity in Conversation with the Past
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to the Bihar Museum, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is located in Patna.
Statement 2: The Didarganj Yakshi is a bronze sculpture.
Statement 3: Its collection also includes presentations related to coins and Bihari migration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: The Bihar Museum is in Patna.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Didarganj Yakshi is made of Chunar sandstone, not bronze.
Statement 3 is correct: The museum's presentation includes a coin reserve and galleries linked to Bihari migration.
Question 2. In a museum, which of the following is the most appropriate meaning of 'visible storage'?
(a) Keeping only digital replicas and removing the original objects
(b) Determining an object's age solely by looking at its photograph
(c) Making a larger share of the safely stored collection viewable by visitors
(d) Keeping all antiquities in the open without protection
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
In visible storage, a larger share of the collection is shown to visitors while its safety and systematic custody are maintained. It is not a method of removing original objects, of dating objects without evidence, or of abandoning conservation.
November 2026
Raniwas Mound: What the Declaration of National Importance Means
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Raniwas mound:
Statement 1: It is located at Kesaria in the East Champaran district of Bihar.
Statement 2: In the schedule relating to the declaration of national importance, its ownership is recorded with the Government of Bihar.
Statement 3: As soon as a site is declared of national importance in India, it is automatically included in UNESCO's World Heritage List.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: the notification gives the location as Kesaria, district East Champaran, Bihar.
Statement 2 is correct: the schedule records the ownership of the 1.63-acre site with the Government of Bihar.
Statement 3 is incorrect: protection under national law and the international World Heritage List are separate arrangements. This declaration does not automatically confer World Heritage status.
Question 2. Under Section 4 of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, how much time is given to interested persons for objections before the final declaration?
(a) Fifteen days
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
Section 4 provides a period of two months after the notification of intention. Interested persons may object within this period. After that, the government may issue the final declaration after considering any objections received.
November 2026
Cellophane Bees: A Sign of a Polymer That Breaks Down in Soil
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements about the nest lining of cellophane bees:
Statement 1: It contains a polyester with polyethylene-like properties.
Statement 2: Understanding its polymer structure can be useful in developing biomimicry-based material.
Statement 3: Once a polymer is cross-linked, its degradation under ordinary environmental conditions becomes impossible.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: the material studied is a polyester; some of its properties resemble polyethylene. The two are not chemically the same substance.
Statement 2 is correct: the attempt to build new material by understanding the principle of a natural structure is biomimicry.
Statement 3 is wrong: cross-links can increase durability, but they do not make degradation impossible in every situation. The material studied refutes this generalisation.
Question 2. Understanding a useful chemical process of an organism and developing new material in the laboratory on the same principle is an example of which of the following?
(a) Bioaccumulation
(b) Biomimicry
(c) Biomagnification
(d) Ecological succession
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
In biomimicry, technical principles are taken from the structures or processes of organisms. Bioaccumulation is the accumulation of a substance in an organism and biomagnification is the rise in its concentration at higher levels of the food chain. Ecological succession is the process of change in communities over time.
November 2026
IL-76 at Nyoma: A New Capability for Heavy Logistics at High Altitude
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Nyoma airfield:
Statement 1: It is located in eastern Ladakh.
Statement 2: It would be correct to describe the IL-76MD's landing there as the highest-altitude landing by any aircraft in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: the Mudh-Nyoma airfield is in eastern Ladakh.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the achievement concerns the highest landing by an aircraft of the IL-76MD type. Aircraft of other types have already landed at higher airfields such as Daulat Beg Oldi.
Question 2. In a military context, which of the following is the main purpose of strategic air transport?
(a) Aerial radar surveillance to detect enemy aircraft
(b) Air transport of soldiers and heavy military equipment
(c) Refuelling fighter aircraft in flight
(d) Intercepting enemy fighter aircraft in air combat
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
The IL-76MD is a heavy military transport aircraft. Its role is connected with the air transport of soldiers, large equipment and other military material.
November 2026
Bose-Einstein Condensate: Record Cold in Space
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to a Bose-Einstein condensate:
Statement 1: In it, a large number of bosons can share the same quantum state.
Statement 2: To create it, the temperature of the atoms must be taken below absolute zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: the entry of a large number of bosons into the same quantum state is the basis of a BEC's collective behaviour.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the temperature of this experiment was slightly above absolute zero. Going below absolute zero is not its condition.
Question 2. Which of the following is the main advantage of microgravity for ultra-cold atom experiments in space?
(a) The mass of atoms becomes zero
(b) The free expansion of the atom cloud can be observed for longer
(c) The speed of light increases in every experiment
(d) All quantum effects come to an end
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
Microgravity helps experiments that need long free expansion and weaker confinement. It neither ends the mass of atoms, nor is it a means of changing the speed of light or erasing quantum effects.
September 2026
Global Innovation Index 2026: The Meaning of India's 38th Rank
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Global Innovation Index 2026:
Statement 1: It is published by the World Intellectual Property Organization.
Statement 2: India is at the 38th place in the overall ranking.
Statement 3: Because India is first in the lower-middle income group, it is also first in the overall global ranking.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 2 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 1 and 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Only 1 and 2
Statement 1: Correct. The GII is a global innovation assessment published by WIPO.
Statement 2: Correct. In 2026, India is 38th among 139 economies.
Statement 3: Wrong. First in the income group and first in the overall ranking are different things.
Question 2. While interpreting an index's annual rank, which of the following approaches is the most appropriate?
(a) Taking a regional first rank as the overall global first rank
(b) Taking every rank change as only the result of a change in real capability
(c) Looking at the method, the data's years and the comparison group together
(d) Assuming that every underlying figure belongs to the year in the index's name
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Looking at the method, the data's years and the comparison group together
Option (a): Wrong. Regional and global ranks have different comparison groups.
Option (b): Wrong. Data availability and method can also affect the rank.
Option (c): Correct. Method, data years and comparable economies affect the interpretation of the result.
Option (d): Wrong. The indicators' reference years can differ.
November 2026
Anthrax in Virunga: Hippo Deaths in DRC's National Park and the One Health Lens
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Question 1. With reference to Virunga National Park and anthrax, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Virunga National Park is located in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
Statement 2: Anthrax is a disease related to a bacterium called Bacillus anthracis.
Statement 3: In the One Health approach, environmental and animal health are kept separate from human health.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2
Statement 1: Correct. Virunga is in the eastern DRC.
Statement 2: Correct. Anthrax is bacterial, not a viral disease like Ebola.
Statement 3: Wrong. One Health sees the interconnections of human, animal and environmental health together.
Question 2. After a report of anthrax in wildlife, which of the following steps best fits the One Health approach?
(a) Starting to test animals only after a case appears in humans
(b) Distributing dead animals as food
(c) Keeping animal-health information separate from the environment and health departments
(d) Coordinating wildlife and human-health surveillance and safely managing infected carcasses
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Coordinating wildlife and human-health surveillance and safely managing infected carcasses
Option (a): Wrong. Waiting only for a human case weakens advance animal surveillance.
Option (b): Wrong. Contaminated meat can create the risk of infection.
Option (c): Wrong. Keeping information separate instead of coordinated is contrary to One Health.
Option (d): Correct. It connects the animal, environmental and human sides of the risk.
October 2026
Teghaza 001: The Rocky Record of Mars's Ancient Water
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Question 1. With reference to Teghaza 001, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a meteorite of Martian origin found on Earth.
Statement 2: Oxygen isotope ratios helped identify its Martian origin.
Statement 3: An age of about 4.1 billion years means it fell to Earth at that time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1: Correct. The sample was found in the Sahara, but its origin was identified as Mars.
Statement 2: Correct. Its oxygen isotopes were matched with other Martian meteorites.
Statement 3: Wrong. This is an age related to the rock's ancient history, not the date it reached Earth.
Question 2. If an ancient Martian rock shows signs of mineral alteration by water, which of the following conclusions is directly supported?
(a) Interaction between water and minerals occurred in the rock's history
(b) Living microbes are still present in that rock today
(c) Surface rivers are flowing in all parts of Mars today
(d) The meteorite's original location on Mars has been definitely identified
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Interaction between water and minerals occurred in the rock's history
Option (a): Correct. Mineral alteration can be a sign of water-rock interaction.
Option (b): Wrong. Evidence of aqueous alteration is not evidence of finding living organisms.
Option (c): Wrong. An ancient sample does not describe the current condition of the whole planet.
Option (d): Wrong. A match of possible sites is different from a definite identification of the source.
November 2026
Pralay Test: Understanding the Quasi-Ballistic Missile
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Question 1. In the context of the Pralay test of 5 November 2026, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The test was conducted from Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Island.
Statement 2: RCI, Hyderabad played a role in its development along with other DRDO laboratories.
Statement 3: The release of a successful test is itself proof that its deployment in all operational units was completed on the same day.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1: Correct. The official release mentions this island near the Odisha coast.
Statement 2: Correct. RCI and other DRDO laboratories are linked to the indigenous development.
Statement 3: Wrong. The release is of a user evaluation trial; the test and full deployment are separate stages.
Question 2. Which of the following is mentioned as a development-cum-production partner of the Pralay system?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) Bharat Dynamics Limited
(c) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
(d) Indian Space Research Organisation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Bharat Dynamics Limited
Option (a): Wrong. CPCB is a body related to pollution control.
Option (b): Correct. BDL produced the system and is a development-cum-production partner.
Option (c): Wrong. INCOIS is a body related to ocean information services.
Option (d): Wrong. In this release, BDL, not ISRO, is mentioned as the production partner.
November 2026
Amini: Anti-Submarine Security in Shallow Seas
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Question 1. With reference to the Amini vessel, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It has been indigenously designed and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers.
Statement 2: It is built for an anti-submarine role in shallow water.
Statement 3: It is named after an island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1: Correct. According to the Defence Ministry, the design and construction were done by GRSE, Kolkata.
Statement 2: Correct. It is an Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The name is taken from Amini Island in Lakshadweep, not from the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Question 2. The main use of sonar is related to which of the following?
(a) Nuclear fission of a vessel's fuel
(b) Only fixing the orbits of satellites
(c) Identifying a target underwater or estimating its position through sound waves
(d) Direct measurement of the amount of ozone in the atmosphere
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) identifying a target underwater or estimating its position through sound waves
Option (a): Incorrect. Sonar is a sensor, not a fuel or a nuclear reactor.
Option (b): Incorrect. Its main link is with acoustic sensing underwater, not with satellite orbits.
Option (c): Correct. Sonar is a means of sound-based maritime sensing and is useful in the anti-submarine role.
Option (d): Incorrect. Measuring ozone is not sonar's main role.
November 2026
The Return of Measles: The Lesson of the Vaccination Gap
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Question 1. With reference to measles-rubella (MR) vaccination in India, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Two doses of the MR vaccine are given in the Universal Immunization Programme.
Statement 2: The first dose is given at 9 to 12 months and the second dose at 16 to 24 months of age.
Statement 3: Children who missed out can be given this vaccine up to the age of five years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All three statements are correct.
Question 2. With reference to the National Family Health Survey-6 (2023-24), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Coverage of the second dose of measles-containing vaccine among children aged 12 to 23 months rose compared with Survey-5.
Statement 2: Full vaccination coverage based on the card rose from 83.8% to 87.1%.
Statement 3: Coverage of the second dose has crossed 90%.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Second-dose coverage rose from 58.6% to 71.8%, that is, it is below 90%. So statement 3 is wrong.
Question 3. Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: Measles is a highly contagious disease that spreads through air or droplets.
Statement-II: WHO recommends giving two doses of measles-containing vaccine in routine vaccination.
With reference to the above statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not correctly explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is wrong
(d) Statement-I is wrong, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The recommendation of two doses does not explain how the disease spreads.
November 2026
Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme: New Approvals and Semicon 2.0
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Question 1. Consider these statements about recent ECMS approvals:
Statement 1: They cover 12 applications with projected investment of ₹7,503 crore.
Statement 2: Projects span seven states.
Statement 3: Total approved applications have now reached 106.
Which are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The total is now 118. The earlier total was 106, so Statement 3 is wrong.
Question 2. Consider these two statements:
Statement-I: Copper foil is an important input for copper-clad laminates and lithium-ion cells.
Statement-II: Copper foil, cathode active materials and specialised ceramics received their first ECMS approvals.
Which option is correct?
(a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.
(b) Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not correctly explain Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The first describes utility, the second approval sequence. Both are correct, but the latter does not explain the former.
Question 3. Consider these statements about Semicon 2.0:
Statement 1: Its financial outlay is ₹1,27,500 crore.
Statement 2: It focuses on six strategic pillars.
Statement 3: Applications have opened for all six pillars.
Which are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). Applications are open only for pillars 2, 3 and 4, making Statement 3 incorrect.
November 2026
New Monitoring of Rice and Paddy Stocks
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the recent Central order on rice and paddy stocks:
Statement 1: Stocks must be declared in six categories.
Statement 2: The stock position must be updated every Friday on the Food Stock Portal.
Statement 3: The declaration of stocks is mandatory only for wholesale traders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The order applies to retailers, large retail chains and processors/millers as well as wholesale traders. Therefore Statement 3 is wrong.
Question 2. Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: The Centre has given consent to Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana to impose stock limits on rice and paddy.
Statement-II: These stock limits will remain in force until 31 January 2027.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The mention of the period states the time frame of the consent but does not explain why the consent was given, so Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Question 3. Consider the following statements about the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) [OMSS (D)]:
Statement 1: Under it, rice is sold to private parties through e-auction.
Statement 2: The rice sales target for 2026-27 has been raised from 25 lakh metric tonnes to 50 lakh metric tonnes.
Statement 3: It is a scheme for purchasing rice directly from farmers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: It is a sales scheme, not a purchase scheme. Therefore Statement 3 is wrong.
November 2026
Ken-Betwa Project: A Test of Water Security and Rehabilitation
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Question 1. With reference to the Ken-Betwa link project, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The Daudhan Dam is being built on the Ken river.
Statement 2: The link canal will join at Barua Sagar near Jhansi.
Statement 3: The foundation stone of the project was laid in 2021.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Daudhan Dam is on the Ken river and the canal will join at Barua Sagar (near Jhansi). Cabinet approval was in December 2021, but the foundation stone was laid on 25 December 2024. So Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 2. Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: The aim of the Ken-Betwa link project is to increase water security and resilience to drought in Bundelkhand.
Statement-II: The project provides for the generation of both hydropower and solar power.
With reference to the above statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The project's aim is to increase water security, and both hydropower and solar power are proposed in it. Both statements are correct, but energy generation does not explain the objective of water security.
November 2026
How a Tokamak Works: The Magnetic Cage for Fusion Energy
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Question 1. With reference to the Tokamak, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: In a tokamak, high-temperature plasma is confined and controlled with the help of a magnetic field.
Statement 2: The process of energy production in a tokamak is based on nuclear fission, in which a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only.
Statement 1: Correct. In a tokamak, high-temperature plasma is confined and controlled with the help of a powerful magnetic field, because hot plasma cannot be kept in contact with the wall of a solid vessel.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The energy process of a tokamak is based on nuclear fusion, in which light nuclei join to form a heavier nucleus; the splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei is nuclear fission, which does not take place in a tokamak.
Question 2. With reference to ITER, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is an international experimental project to build a tokamak for deuterium- and tritium-based nuclear fusion.
Statement 2: It is itself equipped to generate electricity and sells electricity commercially.
Statement 3: India is one of its seven members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only.
Statement 1: Correct. ITER is an international experimental project building a tokamak for deuterium- and tritium-based fusion.
Statement 2: Incorrect. ITER is not itself equipped to generate electricity; its purpose is to test fusion at a large scale and the necessary technologies, not to sell electricity.
Statement 3: Correct. ITER's seven members are China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States.
October 2026
Malabar Tree Toad: Karnataka's New Amphibian Symbol
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Malabar Tree Toad:
Statement 1: It is an endemic species of the Western Ghats.
Statement 2: Being declared a state symbol means the species is found only in that state.
Statement 3: Protecting forest habitat and moist conditions is important for its conservation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) The Western Ghats are the natural region of its endemism; the honour of a state symbol does not limit the distribution to a state's boundary. Protecting forest and moisture is important.
Question 2. Which statement is correct about the estimate of future suitable habitat derived from climate models?
(a) It is equivalent to a direct count of the current animal population
(b) It gives a certain and identical result in all emission scenarios
(c) It should be read along with the model's assumptions and scenarios
(d) It ends the need for field surveys
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Habitat-suitability models give an estimate of possible future distribution. They are not a count of the current population and are a complement to surveys.
November 2026
Network Anubhav: TRAI's Platform for Network Quality and DND
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Question 1. Consider the following statements in the context of the Network Anubhav platform:
Statement 1: It includes information on user tests from the MySpeed and MyCall apps.
Statement 2: Results of independent drive tests can also be seen in it.
Statement 3: User tests are automatically a complete assessment of network quality based on a standard methodology.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) The first two statements are correct. TRAI has cautioned against treating user tests as a complete standard quality evaluation; so the third statement is wrong.
Question 2. Which of the following functions relates to the DND web facility of Network Anubhav?
(a) Allotting telecom spectrum to a mobile operator
(b) Guaranteeing a fixed internet speed to every consumer
(c) Registering preference on commercial communication and seeing complaints on unwanted calls/messages
(d) Direct operation of all internet service providers
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) The DND facility relates to communication preference, complaints about unsolicited commercial communication and complaint status. It is not spectrum allotment or direct operation of operators.
November 2026
Old Fault Lines of Climate Talks: India's Caution on the '35 by 2035' Proposal
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Question 1. Where and when is COP31 being held?
(a) Belem, Brazil - November 2025
(b) Antalya, Türkiye - 9-21 November 2026
(c) Baku, Azerbaijan - November 2026
(d) Dubai, UAE - December 2026
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - the 31st UNFCCC COP is in Antalya, Türkiye, on 9-21 November 2026; the co-presidency is of Türkiye and Australia. COP30 was held in Belem (Brazil).
Question 2. What target does the '35 by 2035' proposal set?
(a) 35% waste reduction by 2035
(b) 35% share of electricity in global energy use by 2035
(c) 35% forest cover by 2035
(d) 35% cut in emissions by 2035
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - raising the share of electricity from about 23% in 2023 to 35% by 2035 - rapid electrification of transport, buildings and industry; India has not yet decided its support. (Türkiye's other proposals: halving waste growth, at least a 25% cut in the energy intensity of the buildings sector.)
Question 3. The CBDR-RC principle is related to what?
(a) WTO agriculture negotiations
(b) The distribution of climate responsibilities under the UNFCCC
(c) The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
(d) Only the financial mechanism of the Montreal Protocol
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - "Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities" - responsibility according to historical emissions and capacity; India describes this as its biggest priority at COP31.
November 2026
CERT-In's Serious Warning: 'Crafty Falcon' - Indian Banking and Fintech Sector Targeted by AI-Driven Attacks
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Question 1. What is the legal basis of CERT-In's establishment?
(a) Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000
(b) The Telegraph Act
(c) The DPDP Act, 2023
(d) The National Security Act
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - Section 70B (from the 2008 amendment) - the national nodal agency for cyber incidents, under MeitY.
Question 2. What is the speciality of the 'Crafty Falcon' campaign?
(a) File encryption through ransomware
(b) Surveying with AI and making unauthorised transfers through the victim's own APIs
(c) Service disruption through DDoS
(d) Crypto-mining malware
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - according to CERT-In, attackers are surveying targets with AI tools and misusing payment/disbursement APIs - the incidents have spread to NBFCs, lending, payment aggregators and crypto exchanges.
November 2026
QS Asia University Rankings 2027: IIT Delhi Top in India
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Question 1. Which is the top Indian institution in QS Asia 2027?
(a) IISc Bengaluru
(b) IIT Bombay
(c) IIT Delhi
(d) IIT Madras
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) - IIT Delhi - 66th place; IISc (79) and IIT Bombay (83) follow.
Question 2. Which institution took first place in QS Asia 2027?
(a) NUS Singapore
(b) University of Hong Kong
(c) Tsinghua University
(d) University of Tokyo
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - The University of Hong Kong stays on top; Peking University is second and Tsinghua (up six places) third.
November 2026
$400 Billion Investment Commitment in Renewable Energy: India's Green-Energy Capacity
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Question 1. What is ALMM related to?
(a) A list of mining leases
(b) An approved list of solar module models and manufacturers
(c) Wind turbine standards
(d) A battery import quota
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) — MNRE's Approved List of Models and Manufacturers — only listed solar modules in government schemes; protection for domestic manufacturing.
Question 2. What is India's 2030 non-fossil capacity target?
(a) 175 GW
(b) 300 GW
(c) 500 GW
(d) 1000 GW
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) — 500 GW of non-fossil capacity — part of the 2021 Panchamrit announcement; 175 GW (2022) was the older target.
November 2026
VISTAR Scheme: Cabinet Approval for Transforming India's Statistical System
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Question 1. What are the approved amount and period of the VISTAR scheme?
(a) Rs 2,500 crore, 2025-30
(b) Rs 4,371 crore, 2026-27 to 2030-31
(c) Rs 5,000 crore, 2024-29
(d) Rs 4,371 crore, 2025-26 to 2029-30
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - the Cabinet approved the Rs 4,371 crore VISTAR scheme on 4 November 2026 for 2026-27 to 2030-31.
Question 2. Which of these is included among VISTAR's three components?
(a) Census 2031
(b) Economic Census
(c) Caste census
(d) Electoral roll revision
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - the components: comprehensive statistical operations, statistical strengthening assistance, and the Economic Census - the updated list of enterprises is the foundation of the survey framework.
Question 3. Who implements the PLFS?
(a) Ministry of Labour
(b) MoSPI
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) RBI
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - MoSPI (NSO). The official survey system is centred here; VISTAR is the transformation of this very system.
November 2026
Public Accounts Committee (PAC) Conference: Close Watch on Public Spending, Pledge of Faster Action on Audit
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Question 1. How many members in all does the PAC have?
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 24
(d) 30
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - 22 - 15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha; membership is annual; ministers cannot become members.
Question 2. In which year did the convention of appointing an Opposition member as the chairperson of the PAC begin?
(a) 1921
(b) 1967
(c) 1950
(d) 1954
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - The Committee was first formed in 1921. The convention of making an Opposition Lok Sabha member the chairperson began in 1967. The two years should not be taken as the year of the same event.
Question 3. Which of the following is included in the functions of the Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU)?
(a) Determining all policies of the Finance Ministry
(b) Examining the reports and accounts of public undertakings and the CAG's reports on them
(c) Final approval of the budgets of all ministries
(d) Reviewing the decisions of courts
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - The prescribed scope of COPU is the examination of the reports and accounts of public undertakings and the CAG's reports on them. It also tests the working of the undertakings in the context of sound business principles and prudent commercial practices. It is wrong to take it as a policy review of the Finance Ministry.
November 2026
Land Ports on the India-Bhutan Border: Assam's New Gateways After Jaigaon
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Question 1. In which district is the Samrang LCS located?
(a) Darrang
(b) Udalguri
(c) Kamrup
(d) Bongaigaon
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - Udalguri (Assam). Notified in May 2026, it became Assam's fifth India-Bhutan connectivity point.
Question 2. About how much was India-Bhutan bilateral trade in financial year 2024-25?
(a) $0.9 billion
(b) $1.9 billion
(c) $4.6 billion
(d) $19 billion
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - $1.9 billion - a growth of over 46% compared with the previous year. This growth pressure is the main argument for diversifying beyond the single Jaigaon gateway.
Question 3. The Darranga ICP connects directly to which industrial area of Bhutan?
(a) Phuentsholing
(b) Gelephu
(c) Motanga (Samdrup Jongkhar)
(d) Paro
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) - the Motanga Industrial Estate, Samdrup Jongkhar district - the Darranga ICP is built on NH-27 about 700 metres from the border, reducing the cost of transporting raw material, coal and heavy machinery.
Question 4. What is the main difference between an LCS and an ICP?
(a) No difference
(b) An ICP integrates border facilities (except foreign exchange) in one complex; an LCS is a limited customs facility
(c) An ICP is only for air routes
(d) An LCS is only for rail
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - an Integrated Check Post integrates all facilities such as customs, immigration, security and phyto-quarantine in one complex (Land Ports Authority of India), while a Land Customs Station is a limited customs point.
November 2026
Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-2 Extended to March 2028
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Question 1. To when has SBM (Gramin) Phase-2 now been extended?
(a) March 2027
(b) March 2028
(c) March 2030
(d) December 2028
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - March 2028. The Finance Ministry has made clear there will be no extension after 31 March 2028; getting the remaining villages ODF Plus certification by then is mandatory.
Question 2. What is NOT included in the definition of an 'ODF Plus' village?
(a) Sustaining ODF status
(b) Solid and liquid waste management
(c) Visual cleanliness
(d) 100% tap-water connections
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) - the DDWS definition has three elements - sustaining ODF status, solid and liquid waste management, and visual cleanliness. Tap-water connections are a separate target linked to the Jal Jeevan Mission.
Question 3. In SBM(G)-II, what is the Centre:State cost ratio for other (general) States?
(a) 90:10
(b) 75:25
(c) 60:40
(d) 50:50
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) - 60:40. It is 90:10 for the North-Eastern/Himalayan States (including J&K) and 100:0 for the Union Territories; 60:40 for the general States.
Question 4. What was the total approved outlay of SBM(G) Phase-2 (2020)?
(a) Rs 52,497 crore
(b) Rs 1,40,881 crore
(c) Rs 28,726 crore
(d) Rs 7,192 crore
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - Rs 1,40,881 crore. Rs 52,497 crore is the DDWS budget share; Rs 28,726 crore is the spending for 2020-26 and Rs 7,192 crore the allocation for 2026-27 - these are the confusion points in the options.
November 2026
Fast Track Special Court Scheme Extended by Five Years: 850 Courts by 2031
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Question 1. From what will the central share of the FTSC scheme be financed?
(a) Consolidated Fund
(b) Nirbhaya Fund
(c) PM CARES
(d) State Disaster Fund
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - Nirbhaya Fund. According to the Cabinet decision of 4 November 2026, of the total outlay of ₹3,788.04 crore the central share of ₹2,353.15 crore will be financed from the Nirbhaya Fund; the share of States/Union Territories is ₹1,434.89 crore.
Question 2. What is the targeted number of FTSCs under the extended scheme?
(a) 779
(b) 800
(c) 850
(d) 950
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) - 850. At present 779 FTSCs (including 399 exclusive POCSO courts) are functional; the expansion to 850 will be based on district-wise figures of pending cases.
Question 3. In what judicial background was the FTSC scheme launched (2019)?
(a) With the formation of the Nirbhaya Fund
(b) In compliance with the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 and the SC's directions of 25.07.2019
(c) Under the POSH Act
(d) On the recommendation of a judicial reforms commission
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - The scheme was launched on 2 October 2019 in the context of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 and in compliance with the Supreme Court's directions in Suo Motu Writ (Crl.) No. 1/2019 (special courts in districts with 100+ pending POCSO cases).
Question 4. Who implements and monitors the scheme?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) Department of Justice
(d) National Legal Services Authority
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) - Department of Justice - implementation in coordination with State governments; monitoring through the FTSC dashboard and periodic reports, with consultation with the High Courts.
November 2026
Binance Hack and State-Sponsored Cyber Attacks
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Question 1
Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: The FBI has blamed the North Korea-linked activity "TraderTraitor" for the Binance theft.
Statement-II: North Korea has accepted this allegation.
With reference to the above statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is wrong, because North Korea has rejected the allegation as a "grave political provocation".
Question 2
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Hot wallets are wallets that remain connected to the internet and are used for everyday transactions.
Statement 2: According to Binance's statement, the attack began with an unwitting download of malware.
Statement 3: The process of hiding the stolen funds was carried out entirely by hand, with no sign of automation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong, because according to the analysis companies, the speed and pattern of the transactions point to automation.
Question 3
Consider the following two statements:
Statement-I: The use of automation in hiding stolen crypto funds means one-time checks or static lists are no longer sufficient.
Statement-II: According to Elliptic, the attackers sent funds to a new wallet roughly every 25 seconds.
With reference to the above statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. But Statement-II states a fact (the speed); it is not the full explanation of Statement-I, because the limitation of static lists arises from both the constant changing of addresses and automation.
November 2026
EPIC and Aadhaar: What Has Been Clarified About Identification?
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about identity systems:
Statement 1: Aadhaar is a 12-digit identity number issued by UIDAI.
Statement 2: Aadhaar automatically confers the right of Indian citizenship on its holder.
Statement 3: Authentication of a person's identity and determination of eligibility for a particular scheme are separate questions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3
Statement 1 is correct: UIDAI issues the 12-digit Aadhaar number.
Statement 2 is wrong: Aadhaar is proof of identity; it does not by itself confer a right to citizenship or residence.
Statement 3 is correct: a match of identity is not proof that the person's income, age or all other conditions of a scheme are fulfilled.
Question 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate meaning of Aadhaar authentication?
(a) Declaring every holder eligible for all government schemes
(b) Automatically adding a person's name to the electoral roll
(c) Verifying the presented identity information against the central identity record
(d) Giving a final determination of a person's citizenship
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
In Aadhaar authentication, the presented information is verified against the record available in the central identity repository. It is not an automatic determination of eligibility for all schemes, of voter registration or of citizenship.
November 2026
Visa Forms to Be Simplified: About 70% Fewer Fields, Changes Across 22 Categories from Next Year
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Question 1. With reference to India's e-visa system, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India grants e-visas in 9 sub-categories with Electronic Travel Authorisation (ETA).
Statement-II: The e-Tourist visa is issued only for a duration of 30 days.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - e-visas are given in 9 sub-categories to 147 countries; the e-Tourist visa is available for all three durations - 30 days, 1 year and 5 years - so Statement-II is wrong.
Question 2. Which statement is correct with reference to the Protected Area Permit (PAP)?
(a) A PAP is required only for the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) A PAP is at present issued automatically along with the visa
(c) Foreigners need a PAP for Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, besides parts of some other states, which at present has to be sought separately after arriving in India
(d) A PAP is mandatory for Indian citizens
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) - parts of Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Rajasthan and Uttarakhand are also in the PAP area; the industry's demand is that it be issued along with the visa - that does not happen at present.
November 2026
Form 6 and SIR: Declaration Separated, ECI's Clarification and the Supreme Court's Watch
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to Form 6:
Statement-I: Form 6 is prescribed under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, and it is used to add the name of a new voter.
Statement-II: The Election Commission can amend Form 6 by its own order.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - Form 6 is the statutory form for new voter registration; the core of the two commissioners' objection was exactly that only the central government can change it - the ECI too admitted in its affidavit that "only the central government can amend Form 6."
Question 2. Which statement is correct with reference to the ECI's letter issued on 2 November 2026?
(a) If a voter registered earlier fills Form 6 during the SIR, action will be taken automatically under Section 31 (RP Act, 1950)
(b) If a voter registered earlier fills Form 6, action will not be taken under Section 31 on this basis alone, provided the person is not registered in any other constituency
(c) The letter permanently included the SIR declaration in Form 6
(d) The letter stopped voter-list publication in all SIR states
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - In line with the Delhi High Court's Nilotpal Dutta judgment (14 October 2026), the ECI clarified that in such a situation Form 6 is not in itself a false declaration; the protection applies only when the applicant is not registered in any other parliamentary/assembly constituency.
September 2026
Deepfake Detection: How Light Tests a Video
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: In a hybrid digital-optical system, some stages of information processing can be digital and some optical.
Statement 2: Multiplexing can make the parallel processing of many independent signals possible in one arrangement.
Statement 3: Having a passive optical decoder means the whole system needs no energy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Correct answer: (a) Only 1 and 2
A hybrid arrangement has both digital and optical parts. Multiplexing helps process separate signals together. Despite the passive decoder, the light source, modulator, detectors and digital part take energy. So Statement 3 is wrong.
Question 2. In the classification of synthetic and real videos, what ability does 'specificity' show?
(a) Declaring all videos synthetic
(b) Identifying a real video as real
(c) Identifying only a video's date
(d) Confirming any video's original source
Answer and Explanation
Correct answer: (b) Identifying a real video as real
In this classification, sensitivity relates to identifying synthetic videos and specificity to correctly identifying real videos. Overall accuracy looks at the correct classification of both classes together. None of these figures alone confirms a video's source, date or context.
October 2026
Lung Cancer: How Smoke Changes Cells
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Epigenetic changes can affect a gene's activity without changing the DNA sequence.
Statement 2: Organoids are three-dimensional cellular models grown in the laboratory.
Statement 3: TP53 is generally considered a gene that promotes tumours.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (a) Only 1 and 2
Epigenetic changes can affect a gene's activity without changing the DNA sequence. Organoids are three-dimensional laboratory models. TP53 is a gene that plays a role in stopping tumours; so statement 3 is wrong.
Question 2. In a cell, 'chromatin accessibility' is related to which of the following?
(a) The solubility of oxygen in blood
(b) The packing of DNA and the gene-reading machinery's access to it
(c) The size of the lung's air sacs
(d) The quantity of salt outside the cell membrane
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (b) The packing of DNA and the gene-reading machinery's access to it
Chromatin is the structure of DNA and the proteins attached to it. Its tightness or openness can affect the gene-reading machinery's access and gene expression.
November 2026
Proposal for a 100-Foot Flag at Sinhagad: Kondhana, Tanaji and 1670
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Question 1. With reference to Sinhagad Fort, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Its old name was Kondhana.
Statement 2: In 1670 it was recovered by the Marathas under the leadership of Tanaji Malusare.
Statement 3: This fort is located in Jaipur district of present-day Rajasthan.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) The old name of Sinhagad was Kondhana. In 1670 it was recovered under the leadership of Tanaji Malusare. It is in Pune district of Maharashtra, not in Rajasthan.
Question 2. Why is the approval of the general body of the Pune Municipal Corporation stated to be needed for the proposed flag project at Sinhagad?
(a) Because the fort is outside the geographical limit of the Municipal Corporation
(b) Because all historical forts are union territories
(c) Because the construction of the project has already been completed
(d) Because the fort is outside Maharashtra
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) The report gives the fort being outside the Corporation's geographical limit as the reason for the need for approval. A budget provision should not be taken as final approval or as the same as full construction.
November 2026
Water Ingress in INS Kesari: The Shardul-Class Ship and Amphibious Operations
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to INS Kesari:
Statement 1: It is a Landing Ship Tank (Large) of the Shardul class.
Statement 2: It was built by GRSE and commissioned on 5 April 2008.
Statement 3: It has been built mainly as a submarine that carries out covert operations in the deep sea.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Kesari is a large tank-landing ship of the Shardul class. It was built by GRSE and commissioned on 5 April 2008. It is a ship for amphibious transport of troops, tanks and vehicles, not a submarine.
Question 2. What is the most correct meaning of a report of water ingress in a ship?
(a) The sinking of the ship has been proved for certain.
(b) Sea water has entered the internal compartments of the ship unintentionally.
(c) The ship has completed its commissioning trials.
(d) The ship is only filling drinking water.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Water ingress denotes the unintended entry of sea water inside a ship. It can put stability and machinery at risk, but this term alone does not lead to a conclusion about the ship sinking or the final extent of damage.
November 2026
Umred-Karhandla's Young Tiger in Pench: Natural Dispersal and Wildlife Corridors
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about Maharashtra's Pench Tiger Reserve related to this news:
Statement 1: This sighting recorded near Chorbahuli Gate is related to Nagpur district.
Statement 2: Maharashtra's Pench got tiger reserve status in 1999.
Statement 3: The Pench reserves of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh are a single administrative tiger reserve.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) The sighting took place in the Pench of Maharashtra's Nagpur district. Maharashtra's Pench got tiger reserve status in 1999. The Pench reserves of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are separate administrative reserves of a connected forest landscape; so Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 2. The sighting of Umred-Karhandla's young tiger in Pench is the most appropriate basis for which conclusion?
(a) The tiger was released there under a government resettlement programme.
(b) The continuity of the whole possible corridor has been conclusively proven.
(c) There is a possibility of natural dispersal and habitat connectivity, which needs further scientific monitoring.
(d) The tiger has made a permanent territory in Pench.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) The report indicates natural dispersal and possible connectivity. Officials are still assessing the route's functionality and the tiger's stay. No conclusion of human-planned translocation or permanent settlement has been drawn.
November 2026
International Maize Conference 2026: M4FS and the Farmer-Centred 5F Vision
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Question 1. Consider the following statements regarding the International Maize Conference 2026:
Statement 1: Its first edition was held in Hyderabad.
Statement 2: The M4FS theme includes food, feed, fodder, fuel and sustainability.
Statement 3: The conference emphasised including Farmers under the 5F vision.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) All three statements are correct. The first conference is in Hyderabad on 2-4 November 2026. The theme is M4FS. The ICAR Director General emphasised a 5F vision by adding Farmers to the traditional 4F.
Question 2. What is CIMMYT mainly associated with?
(a) International rice research
(b) International maize and wheat improvement
(c) Marine fisheries resource management
(d) Wildlife trade control
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) CIMMYT's full name is the International Maize and Wheat Improvement Center. It is an international centre for maize and wheat improvement and is among the conference's partner organisers.
November 2026
Ash Column from Mayon Volcano: Facts on Location, Stratovolcano and Evacuation
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Question 1. With reference to the Mayon volcano, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a stratovolcano of the Philippines.
Statement 2: It is located in the south-east of Luzon island.
Statement 3: The 3 November report described the ash column as 16 kilometres high above the crater.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Mayon is a stratovolcano located in south-eastern Luzon in the Philippines. The report gave the column as 1,600 metres, that is, about 1.6 kilometres, not 16 kilometres. So Statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 2. Which description is appropriate for Strombolian activity?
(a) Only quiet emission of water vapour, in which lava never comes out.
(b) Explosive throwing up of lava fragments and gas from the crater.
(c) Activity occurring only on mid-ocean ridges.
(d) Only river flood flow caused by rain.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) In the USGS Strombolian example, blobs of molten lava are thrown from the summit crater. It cannot be called only water vapour emission or a river flood.
November 2026
Tiger on Tourists' Cameras at Radhanagari-Dajipur: STR-T10 Ranoji
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Radhanagari-Dajipur Wildlife Sanctuary:
Statement 1: Its notified area is 351.16 square kilometres.
Statement 2: Its flagship species is the Indian gaur.
Statement 3: It is itself a national park and distinct from a tiger reserve.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Statements 1 and 2 only
(b) Statements 2 and 3 only
(c) Statements 1 and 3 only
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) The MoEFCC Gazette (S.O. 3630(E), 15 October 2020) mentions 351.16 sq km under the state notification of 16 September 1985; the flagship species is the gaur (hence the "Bison Sanctuary"). It is a wildlife sanctuary, not a national park - Statement 3 is wrong.
Question 2. What is the significance of the sighting of tiger STR-T10 "Ranoji" at Radhanagari-Dajipur on 2 November 2026?
(a) The first census of tigers in the sanctuary
(b) The first official tiger sighting recorded on camera by tourists
(c) The sanctuary's conversion into a tiger reserve
(d) Definite proof of a functioning corridor
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) According to the Forest Department, this is the first time tourists have officially recorded a tiger with photographs and video. A single sighting is not definite proof of corridor functionality, but a possible indication - so (d) is also wrong.
November 2026
Prasar Bharati's Two ABU Honours: Beyond the Call and Broadcast Engineering
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Question 1. In the context of the ABU honours, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: AIR Bengaluru received a Special Commendation for Beyond the Call.
Statement 2: The 63rd ABU General Assembly was held in New Delhi.
Statement 3: Nongmaithem Nandakumar Singh received the honour for broadcast engineering.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The General Assembly is held in Colombo, Sri Lanka, not in New Delhi.
Question 2. Choose the correct statement about WAVES OTT:
(a) It provides only radio programmes.
(b) It is Prasar Bharati's digital streaming platform.
(c) It started in November 2026.
(d) Its reach is only in India.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) WAVES OTT is a platform of Prasar Bharati. It started in November 2024 and provides TV, radio and other kinds of content.
November 2026
Shey-Phoksundo: Nepal's Trans-Himalayan National Park
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Question 1. With reference to Shey-Phoksundo National Park, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is spread over Nepal's Dolpa and Mugu districts.
Statement 2: It was established in 1984.
Statement 3: It is located in Nepal's trans-Himalayan region.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) All three statements are correct. According to Nepal's wildlife conservation department, the park is spread over Dolpa and Mugu, it was established in 1984 and it is located in the trans-Himalayan region of north-western Nepal.
Question 2. With reference to Phoksundo Lake, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is located inside Shey-Phoksundo National Park.
Statement 2: It was designated a Ramsar site in 2007.
Statement 3: Its area of 494 hectares in the Ramsar record is the area of the whole national park.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The lake is inside the park and its Ramsar designation happened on 23 September 2007. 494 hectares is the Ramsar site's area; the national park's area is 3,555 square kilometres. So statement 3 is wrong.
November 2026
NPDD: Why Sikkim's Milk-Testing Laboratory Matters
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Question 1. With reference to the National Programme for Dairy Development, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is run by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
Statement 2: Milk quality testing and a village-level cold chain are among the objectives of its Component A.
Statement 3: Only the state of Sikkim is included in its Component B.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The NPDD is run by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying. Component A strengthens milk procurement, quality testing, the cold chain and related infrastructure. Component B applies in nine states; Sikkim is not in that list. So statement 3 is wrong.
Question 2. With reference to dairy development, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A cold chain is an arrangement to keep milk at a suitably low temperature.
Statement 2: Traceability of a product relates to tracking its source and the stages of its supply.
Statement 3: A project's sanctioned amount is necessarily equal to its full expenditure.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The cold chain is tied to keeping milk cold and traceability to tracking a product's journey. Sanction, release and expenditure are different stages. So statement 3 is wrong.
November 2026
Exostoma nasibarbatum: New Catfish Species from Manipur's Chandel District
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Question 1. With reference to Exostoma nasibarbatum, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a new catfish species discovered from the Bupal stream of Manipur's Chandel district.
Statement 2: The Bupal stream is connected to the Chindwin river system.
Statement 3: This species is a characteristic species of the Brahmaputra river system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct - the species was found in the Bupal stream of Chandel district, which connects to the Chindwin system through the Dujang River. Statement 3 is wrong - it is a species of the Chindwin (India-Myanmar border) system, not of the Brahmaputra system.
Question 2. With reference to the identification and naming of Exostoma nasibarbatum, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Its nasal barbel extends up to beyond the rear edge of the eye socket (orbit).
Statement 2: The species' name is formed from the Latin words nasus (nose) and barba (barbel).
Statement 3: The genus Exostoma has only 5 valid species in the world.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct - the long nasal barbel is its main identifier and the name is formed from it. Statement 3 is wrong - the genus Exostoma has 23 valid species in the Indian subcontinent and South-East Asia, of which 7 are in the Chindwin-Irrawaddy drainage.
November 2026
Tiger Triumph 2026: India-US Tri-Services HADR Exercise in Tabletop Format
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to Tiger Triumph 2026:
Statement 1: It is a bilateral tri-services HADR exercise between India and the US.
Statement 2: Its fifth edition was inaugurated at the Maritime Warfare Centre, Visakhapatnam.
Statement 3: This time it is being conducted as a field-training exercise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct - it is an India-US bilateral tri-services HADR exercise and its fifth edition was inaugurated on 2 November 2026 at the Maritime Warfare Centre, Visakhapatnam. Statement 3 is incorrect - according to the Ministry of Defence's release, this year the exercise is being conducted as a Tabletop Exercise (TTX), not as field training.
Question 2. Consider the following statements with reference to participation in Tiger Triumph 2026:
Statement 1: An NDRF team is participating in this edition for the first time.
Statement 2: The US side includes specialists in the space and cyber fields as well.
Statement 3: The exercise's first edition was held in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) All three statements are correct - NDRF has joined for the first time in the fifth edition of 2026; the US side has space, cyber, medical and EOD specialists along with all four services; and the exercise's first edition was held in November 2019.
November 2026
DEPA Handbook for AI Training: A Framework for Trusted Data Sharing
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to DEPA:
Statement 1: The concept of DEPA was first presented by NITI Aayog in 2020 for consent-based sharing of financial data.
Statement 2: In the DEPA framework, data goes to the model, while the model remains in place.
Statement 3: The DEPA Handbook for AI training has been released by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only statements 1 and 2
(b) Only statements 2 and 3
(c) Only statements 1 and 3
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Statement 1 is correct — NITI Aayog presented the DEPA blueprint in 2020, and the Account Aggregator system grew out of it. Statement 2 is wrong because it is the reverse: in DEPA, the model goes to the data, the data does not go to the model — this is the framework's defining feature. Statement 3 is correct — the handbook was released by MeitY on 31 October 2026.
Question 2. Which component of the DEPA Training framework helps trace the origin of data, the permissions given over it and its use in the training process?
(a) Data provenance
(b) Account Aggregator
(c) Digital signature
(d) Blockchain ledger
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Data provenance is the mechanism by which where data came from, the terms on which it was shared and how it was used in training can all be audited. The ministry's announcement described it as the basis of accountability and transparency.
November 2026
Natural Rubber Hits a Record Rs 300 a Kg, New Light on Plantations
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Question 1. In the context of natural rubber and the Rubber Board, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The Rubber Board is a statutory body working under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, with its headquarters at Kottayam.
Statement 2: RSS-4 is a grade of smoke-dried sheet of natural rubber.
Statement 3: The Rubber Board issues a report of daily prices of rubber in the domestic market.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only Statements 1 and 2
(b) Only Statements 2 and 3
(c) Only Statements 1 and 3
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) The Rubber Board is a statutory body formed under the Rubber Act, 1947 that works from Kottayam under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. RSS (Ribbed Smoked Sheet) is smoke-dried sheet rubber, and the Board issues a daily price report - in the report of 2 November 2026 the price of RSS-4 was recorded at Rs 300 per kilogram. All three statements are correct.
Question 2. In the context of the historic event recorded in the Rubber Board's daily price report of 2 November 2026, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) In the domestic market the price of RSS-4 grade natural rubber reached Rs 300 per kilogram for the first time
(b) The price of rubber in the international market crossed Rs 500 per kilogram
(c) The government imposed an export ban on rubber
(d) The Rubber Board announced the end of the RSS-4 grade
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) According to the Rubber Board's daily price report, on 2 November 2026 the price of RSS-4 in the Kottayam and Kochi markets was Rs 300 per kilogram for the first time. The international price at that time was about Rs 266.69 per kilogram, and neither was an export ban imposed nor was the grade ended.
November 2026
FRRO's Expansion: Services for Foreigners Come Closer
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreigners Regional Registration Offices:
Statement 1: Their role is linked to the registration of eligible foreign nationals after arrival and to lawful-stay-related services.
Statement 2: Once an application is submitted on e-FRRO, approval of a visa extension follows automatically.
Statement 3: Despite the online process, an applicant can be called to the office in a special case.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only statements 1 and 2
(b) Only statements 1 and 3
(c) Only statements 2 and 3
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) After an application, officers verify the documents and eligibility; an application is not an approval. The portal makes clear the possibility of being called to the office for an interview or other need in special cases. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 2. With reference to the expansion of the FRRO network, which of the following conclusions is correct?
(a) The target of establishing an office in every state capital is proof that all the offices are already operational
(b) With the opening of a new regional office, the conditions of all types of visas come to an end
(c) Regional offices and the online service medium can complement each other
(d) With an online service available, administrative verification of an application is no longer necessary
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) The online medium gives facility in applying and viewing status; the regional institution works in verification, local coordination and complex cases. Target, notification and actual operation are separate stages. With expansion, the law in force or visa conditions do not end automatically.
November 2026
The Milky Way's 'Ghost Stars': History Hidden in the Stars
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Question 1. With reference to galactic archaeology, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Every star present in a galaxy today must necessarily have been born in that same galaxy.
Statement 2: Evidence of ancient mergers can be found by reading the motion and chemical make-up of stars together.
Statement 3: In astronomy, carbon and oxygen also fall in the category of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Statements 1 and 2 only
(b) Statements 2 and 3 only
(c) Statements 1 and 3 only
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Because of mergers, stars born in other systems can also end up in the Milky Way. The combined evidence of motion and chemistry is useful in identifying a shared origin. In astronomy, elements heavier than hydrogen and helium are broadly called 'metals'.
Question 2. Which of the following is the most suitable basis for treating a stellar group as a remnant of an ancient galactic merger?
(a) All stars having only the same colour
(b) Only appearing close together in the sky
(c) Combined evidence of motion, chemical make-up and stellar population
(d) The word 'ghost' in the group's name
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Shared motion alone is not enough. A match with chemical information, stellar population and models of a possible merger strengthens the conclusion. 'Ghost' is not a physical classification; it is a metaphor for the surviving identity of an old system.
November 2026
Bharat RE Summit: From Investment to Energy Security
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Question 1. With reference to the energy sector, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Installed electricity capacity and actual electricity generation in a period are different measures.
Statement 2: Non-fossil energy can include nuclear energy.
Statement 3: As solar capacity rises, the need for storage and transmission ends by itself.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Capacity is a measure of the rated limit of production, not of actual generation. Nuclear energy also falls in the non-fossil category. With solar expansion, time-wise availability, storage and the arrangement for carrying electricity remain important.
Question 2. Which is the correct pair of platforms held with Bharat RE 2026?
(a) The International Solar Alliance's ninth assembly and the fourth international conference on green hydrogen
(b) The World Trade Organization's ministerial conference and the International Monetary Fund's annual meeting
(c) The United Nations General Assembly and the biodiversity conference
(d) The assembly of the International Court of Justice and the global nuclear-security summit
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Bharat RE centres wider clean-energy investment, the Solar Alliance assembly centres solar cooperation, and the green hydrogen conference centres the expansion of that technology and investment.
November 2026
Next Generation Corvettes: From Indigenous Design to Maritime Capability
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Question 1. With reference to the Next Generation Corvette project, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Of the eight vessels, GRSE will build five and GSL three.
Statement 2: These vessels will be made capable of operations in the air, surface and subsurface domains.
Statement 3: A person-day estimate of employment proves permanent jobs for the same number of separate individuals.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) The first two statements match the project's announced construction arrangement and capabilities. Person-days indicate the amount of work, not the number of separate permanent jobs.
Question 2. What is the announced design and construction arrangement for the Next Generation Corvette project?
(a) Design by the Indian Navy and construction by defence public sector enterprises selected through a competitive process
(b) Design by a foreign navy and construction only by private foreign shipyards
(c) Design only by GSL and construction of all eight vessels only by GRSE
(d) Direct import of all the vessels in a fully built state instead of design and construction
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) The Indian Navy will design the vessels indigenously. GRSE and GSL, selected through a competitive process, will build five and three vessels respectively. This is not a claim that every item of equipment in the entire project is entirely Indian.
November 2026
Israel: Recommendations Received, Government Still Distant
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Question 1. With reference to assigning the first mandate to form a government in Israel, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is mandatory for the president to give the first opportunity to the leader of the largest party.
Statement 2: After consulting the representatives of the parliamentary groups, the president can assign the mandate to a consenting Knesset member.
Statement 3: The first mandate is assigned within seven days of the publication of the official election results.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Section 7 contains consultation, the member's consent and the period of seven days from the publication of the results. There is no automatic right for the leader of the largest party.
Question 2. With reference to Section 10 of Basic Law: The Government, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: When the relevant preceding stages fail, at least 61 members can make a written request in favour of a consenting member.
Statement 2: A period of 21 days is available for making such a request.
Statement 3: The member receiving the mandate on this request gets 28 days to form a government.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Statement 3 is wrong. Under Section 10 the president assigns the mandate within two days and the candidate gets 14 days. The 21 days for the request and the 14 days for forming a government are separate.
Question 3. With reference to the confidence vote in Israel, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: In the ordinary rule of an initial confidence vote, votes in favour being more than votes against is enough; 61 votes in favour are not required in every situation.
Statement 2: A constructive no-confidence motion expresses confidence in an alternative government by a majority of the total Knesset members.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). In initial government formation, Section 13(d) and the ordinary voting rule of Section 25 of the Knesset law apply. Section 28's constructive no-confidence requires a majority of the total members and confidence in another government. The two processes are not identical.
October 2026
Textiles PLI Round 4: Portal from 1 November 2026, Minimum Turnover for Part 2 Cut to ₹100 Crore
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to Round 4 of the Textiles PLI scheme:
Statement 1: The application portal will remain open from 1 November 2026 to 31 December 2026.
Statement 2: The minimum turnover for Part 2 has been reduced from ₹200 crore to ₹100 crore.
Statement 3: The extended period up to financial year 2033-34 will apply to all old applicants of the scheme.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 match the PIB release. Statement 3 is wrong, because the extension up to 2033-34 is only for applicants approved in Round 4.
Question 2. Participants of Rounds 1, 2 and 3 who have so far claimed or received no incentive can move to Round 4 on which condition?
(a) On withdrawing their old applications
(b) While keeping their old applications
(c) Only if they are Part 1 applicants
(d) Without any condition
See the Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). According to the release, such participants may move to Round 4, but they will have to withdraw their existing applications from Round 1, 2 or 3.
October 2026
DA and DR Rise 3%: Effective from 1 July 2026
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the recent approval of Dearness Allowance (DA) and Dearness Relief (DR):
Statement 1: This increase will be effective from 1 July 2026.
Statement 2: It is a 3% increase on the existing 60% rate.
Statement 3: This increase is based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 match PIB's release. Statement 3 is wrong, because the release says this increase follows the accepted formula based on the recommendations of the 7th Central Pay Commission.
Question 2. What is the combined annual fiscal burden of this additional instalment of DA and DR?
(a) ₹1,001.61 crore
(b) ₹10,016.10 crore
(c) ₹48,540 crore
(d) ₹68,710 crore
See the answer and explanation
Answer: (b). According to the release, the annual burden of DA and DR together will be ₹10,016.10 crore. The numbers of beneficiaries are not amounts.
October 2026
Greater Noida's PRAGATI Park: The Proposed Framework for Robotics and AI
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1. Which statement is correct about the proposed PRAGATI park?
(a) Its entire 69.52-acre area is in a single PPP zone
(b) In Zone 1's SPV, the equity shareholding of the Authority and the industrial partner will be 26% and 74% respectively
(c) Rs 126.2 crore has been described as a government grant
(d) More than one lakh jobs have already been createdAnswer and explanation
Answer: (b). The eight-acre Zone 1 is under the PPP-SPV arrangement; the 61.52-acre Zone 2 is for private investment. Rs 126.2 crore is an interest-free loan. The jobs figure is an estimate at full capacity.
2. What has been stated as the starting point of the 36-month target for commercial operations in Zone 1?
(a) The day of the cabinet's approval
(b) The day the first job is created
(c) The registration of the SPV
(d) The day the last industrial unit opens in Zone 2Answer and explanation
Answer: (c). In the DD News/PTI report the timeline is tied to the SPV's registration. There is provision to extend the period to a maximum of 48 months if needed.
October 2026
The Demand for Liquor Prohibition in Ladakh: A Question of Public Health and Consultation
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1. The Directive Principle reference to public health and prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks is in which Article?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 47
(d) Article 110
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Article 47 relates to the duty of nutrition, standard of living and public health, and to endeavouring to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health.
2. With reference to Ladakh's meeting of 27 October 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) A final announcement of enforcing complete prohibition was made
(b) One operating retail sale centre and 40 restaurant-bars are figures of the same category
(c) On the demand for complete prohibition, the need for wide consultation and consensus was stated
(d) Article 47 by itself cancels all local licences
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). The release speaks of a demand and consultation, not of an enforced complete ban. The retail shop and restaurant-bars are different categories.
October 2026
Microsoft's Voluntary Exit Offer: Eligibility and Limits in India
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1. Consider the following with reference to Microsoft's announcement of 26 October 2026:
1. India is among the participating countries.
2. Every employee of every country is automatically eligible.
3. Eligible employees at Level 70 and below in participating teams are mentioned.Which of the statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). India is included, but eligibility is tied to the participating team and the employee level. Not all organisations are participating.
2. Which distinction is necessary in analysing a voluntary exit offer?
(a) Eligibility, accepting the offer and actual exit are separate stages
(b) Eligibility means the job has ended
(c) India's inclusion means every employee in India will leave
(d) Every term of the old programme automatically applies to the new offerAnswer and explanation
Answer: (a). Being eligible is an opportunity to decide; it is not proof of accepting the offer or leaving the job.
October 2026
Recognising Romance Scams: Tinder, Hinge and the I4C Awareness Campaign
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1. I4C is an initiative of which ministry for dealing with cybercrime in a coordinated way?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of External Affairs
(d) Ministry of EducationAnswer and explanation
Answer: (b). The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Do not take it as a unit of any private dating app.
2. Which statement about the campaign is correct?
(a) It gives every dating profile a government safety certificate
(b) A demand for money after a long conversation can never be fraud
(c) Its purpose is to explain the signs of a possible romance scam and the route of complaint
(d) Only crypto-investment advice will be given in itAnswer and explanation
Answer: (c). This is an awareness campaign. Demands for money and unusual investment offers are its warning points, not a guarantee of being safe.
October 2026
SMA: The Gene, the Nerve and the Challenge of Affordable Treatment
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Question 1. With reference to common 5q SMA, consider the following:
Statement 1: A change in SMN1 can affect the adequate production of SMN protein.
Statement 2: More copies of SMN2 ensure a complete absence of the disease in every person.
Statement 3: Damage to motor neurons is linked to muscle weakness.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. More copies of SMN2 are generally associated with less severity; they are no guarantee of complete protection.
Question 2. If both parents are symptom-free carriers of 5q SMA, which statement is correct under usual recessive inheritance?
(a) Only sons can be affected
(b) Every fourth child will necessarily be affected
(c) Each pregnancy has a 25 per cent probability of an affected child
(d) Carrier parents cannot have an affected child
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). The risk applies separately in every pregnancy; it is not a fixed order number of children. An autosomal disease is not considered limited to sons.
Question 3. Consider the following about the treatment of SMA:
Statement 1: Along with treatment that affects the disease's course, supportive care may also be needed.
Statement 2: A product being a generic by itself fulfils its every regulatory condition automatically.Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1. Along with the medicine, respiratory support, nutrition and rehabilitation may be needed. Applicable quality and regulatory conditions remain in force on a generic product too.
October 2026
Tigress Reaches Raimona from Buxa: The Importance of Connected Forests
Read the full article →October 2026
SGLT2 Inhibitors: Glucose Reabsorption in the Kidney, Benefits and the Limits of Research
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1. Which process do SGLT2 inhibitors mainly reduce?
(a) Diffusion of oxygen in the lungs
(b) Reabsorption of filtered glucose in the kidney
(c) Manufacture of all proteins in the liver
(d) Absorption of vitamin C in the intestineAnswer and explanation
Answer: (b). SGLT2 is a sodium-glucose transporter. When its action falls, more glucose leaves the body in urine.
2. Consider the following statements:
1. SGLT2 inhibitors are a kind of insulin.
2. The scope of use of some SGLT2 inhibitors extends beyond type-2 diabetes to CKD and heart failure.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). These are not insulin. Some drugs have drug-specific indications for CKD and heart failure as well; the approval of each drug and country is checked separately.
3. From a statistically matched cohort study based on health records, which conclusion is most appropriate?
(a) The drug is the proven cause of every better outcome
(b) Even without peer review, the results apply to every patient
(c) An association has been found, but the remaining differences and the limit of cause and effect must be examined
(d) After statistical matching, no limitation needs to be mentionedAnswer and explanation
Answer: (c). An observational study can show an association. Even after matching, the effect of unmeasured factors can remain. Do not take it as equivalent to a randomised trial.
October 2026
Greater Flamingos at Veeranam Lake: Exam Facts on Habitat, Water Level and Conservation
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Question 1. What is the scientific name of the Greater Flamingo?
(a) Phoenicopterus roseus
(b) Phoeniconaias minor
(c) Ardea cinerea
(d) Pavo cristatus
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The Greater Flamingo is Phoenicopterus roseus; option (b) is the Lesser Flamingo.
Question 2. Which statement about Veeranam Lake is correct?
(a) It is a natural glacial lake of Kerala
(b) It is a man-made lake in Tamil Nadu's Cuddalore district
(c) It is a harbour filled only with sea water
(d) It has no connection with Chennai's water supply
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). The district administration and the state tourism department confirm the location, the man-made origin and the water-supply role.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The Greater Flamingo is found only on sea coasts and does not use inland water bodies.
Statement 2: Its presence in any one lake is by itself proof of a breeding colony there.(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). BirdLife records diverse habitats including inland dams. Mere presence does not prove breeding; that needs separate evidence.
October 2026
NMC Withdraws MSMER-2023 Regulations: Questions on Penalties and the Verification Framework
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1. How did the NMC withdraw MSMER-2023?
(a) Through a notification dated 14 October, published in the Gazette on 17 October
(b) Through an Act of Parliament
(c) Through an order of the Supreme Court
(d) Through an ordinance of the President
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the withdrawal happened through a notification dated 14 October, published in the Gazette on 17 October, and the withdrawal is effective from 17 October.
2. What did the NMC say about the Annual Disclosure Report (ADR) after the withdrawal?
(a) The ADR requirement has ended
(b) The ADR requirement will continue under the NMC Act, 2019 and other applicable regulations
(c) ADR will apply only to private colleges
(d) ADR has been replaced by a new single regulation
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the NMC, there is no single new regulation in place of MSMER-2023, and the ADR requirement will remain within the existing legal framework.
3. Consider the following statements about the sequence of events given in the report:
Statement-I: As per the Gazette notification, actions already taken under MSMER-2023 will not be affected by the withdrawal.
Statement-II: The NMC has admitted that the withdrawal has diluted regulatory oversight.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) Only I. The dilution has been alleged by critics. The NMC says this ends duplication and does not dilute standards.
October 2026
Cauvery Water Dispute: CWRC's 15-Day 3,000 Cusec Order to Karnataka
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1. At what rate did the CWRC direct Karnataka to ensure a water flow at Biligundlu?
(a) 3,000 cusecs, for 15 days
(b) 14,236 cusecs, for 15 days
(c) 3,000 cusecs, for 30 days
(d) 13,829 cusecs, for 15 days
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). 14,236 cusecs was the rate equivalent to Tamil Nadu's demand, which the CWRC did not accept.
2. With reference to Karnataka's arguments, which statement is correct?
(a) Inflow into the four basin reservoirs was stated to be about 55% below the 30-year average
(b) Inflow into the four basin reservoirs was stated to be 55% above the 30-year average
(c) The State accepted that it had released less water than stipulated
(d) The State agreed to release Tamil Nadu's full claimed water arrears
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to Karnataka, the inflow was 122.293 tmcft, which is 55.35% below the average of 273.865 tmcft. It also said it had released more water than stipulated.
3. With reference to the sequence of events given in the report, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The CWMA supported the CWRC's direction.
Statement-II: Tamil Nadu included 13.829 tmcft of claimed arrears in its demand.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) Both I and II. According to the report, the CWMA supported the direction at its 60th meeting, and Tamil Nadu's demand of 18.402 tmcft included 13.829 tmcft of claimed arrears.
October 2026
Iran's 'Apocalyptic War' Warning: Claim of Stopping US Warships and Rising Tension Around Hormuz
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Question 1. What did the price of Brent crude reach on 23 October 2026?
(a) $71 per barrel
(b) $97 per barrel
(c) $117 per barrel
(d) $171 per barrel
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). According to the report, Brent crude touched $117 per barrel on 23 October.
Question 2. With reference to the sequence of events given in the report, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The US has blockaded Iranian ports
(b) Iran has welcomed US warships in the Persian Gulf
(c) There are no undersea cables in the Strait of Hormuz
(d) The war began in 2022
View answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the US has blockaded Iranian ports, because of which Iran is unable to export oil. According to the report, the war began on 28 February 2026.
Question 3. With reference to the matters stated in the report, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: According to the report, at least seven important undersea data cables pass through or near the Strait of Hormuz.
Statement-II: According to the report, plans by the US and Israel to resume attacks on Iran have been officially announced.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
View answer and reason
Answer: (a) I only. According to the report, seven cables pass near Hormuz, while the talk of plans to resume attacks is said to be based on US and Israeli media reports, not an official announcement.
October 2026
Road Ministry Orders Forensic Audit of Four Portals After Reports of Vahan-Sarathi Data Selling for Rs 5
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Question 1. Which agency has the Road Transport Ministry asked to carry out the forensic security audit of the four portals?
(a) CERT-In
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) National Investigation Agency
(d) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the ministry has asked CERT-In to carry out a forensic security audit of the VAHAN, SARATHI, e-Challan, and PUCC portals.
Question 2. Which of the following portals handles driving licences and related services?
(a) VAHAN
(b) SARATHI
(c) e-Challan
(d) PUCC
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to the report, VAHAN handles registration records, SARATHI driving licences, e-Challan traffic violations, and PUCC pollution-under-control certificates.
Question 3. With reference to the new tightening described in the report, consider the following statements:
Statement I: Government agencies wanting data will need the approval of the Transport Secretary.
Statement II: Officials have announced a complete stop to data sharing with private entities.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) Only I. According to the report, government agencies will need the Transport Secretary's approval, while officials have refused to stop data sharing with private entities.
October 2026
Shipbuilding Challenge: Indian Shipyards' Delivery Pipeline Nearly Doubles, but Share in Global Orders Only 0.5%
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Question 1. On 1 September 2026, the order book of Indian shipyards was approximately what share of the global total?
(a) 0.5%
(b) 5%
(c) 12%
(d) 19%
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, India's order book of 1.1 million CGT was only 0.5% of the global total.
Question 2. What is the stated target of the Centre's Rs 69,725 crore shipbuilding package, as per the report?
(a) To become a top 5 shipbuilding country by 2030 and top 3 by 2047
(b) To become a top 10 shipbuilding country by 2030 and top 5 by 2047
(c) To become a top 10 shipbuilding country by 2028
(d) To become the largest shipbuilder by 2047
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the report, the package aims to bring India among the top 10 shipbuilding countries by 2030 and the top 5 by 2047.
Question 3. Consider the following statements about the global shipbuilding order book mentioned in the report:
Statement-I: On 1 September 2026, the global order book was at a record level of 203.2 million CGT.
Statement-II: China's share of the global order book is 64%.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) Both I and II. According to the report, the global order book stood at a record 203.2 million CGT, and China's share in it is 64%.
October 2026
Victoria Mode: The Pacific's Little-Known Cycle and North India's Expanding Semi-Arid Zones
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Question 1. The "Victoria Mode" (VM) in the news is related to which oceanic region?
(a) North Pacific Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) South Atlantic Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, VM is a recurring pattern of warm and cold surface water in the northern Pacific, distinct from the Pacific Decadal Oscillation (PDO).
Question 2. Between 1951-80 and 1991-2020, how much did the share of the hot semi-arid (steppe) zone in northwest India change?
(a) Rose from 25.7% to 33.1%
(b) Fell from 33.1% to 25.7%
(c) Rose from 18.7% to 25.8%
(d) Remained roughly unchanged
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the steppe zone rose from 25.7% to 33.1%, while the temperate zone fell from 25.8% to 18.7%.
Question 3. With reference to this study, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The study was published in IMD's journal MAUSAM.
Statement-II: The study explicitly links the Victoria Mode to El Nino.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) I only. According to the report, the study appeared in MAUSAM, but it does not explicitly link VM to El Nino.
November 2026
Siang Project: From Release to Dialogue
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Siang Upper Multipurpose Project:
Statement 1: It is a proposed project related to the Siang river area in Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 2: Its 11,200-megawatt capacity is a proposed capacity, not proof of electricity generation in operation.
Statement 3: Once the preliminary feasibility report is prepared, the final permission for the project's construction is obtained automatically.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: the project is linked to the Siang river area in Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is correct: 11,200 megawatts is the proposed power capacity; there is no claim of current production from the project.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the PFR is an initial investigation. Further detailed study and the necessary clearances are separate.
Question 2. In a hydropower project, which of the following is the main purpose of a 'Pre-Feasibility Report'?
(a) Giving a certificate of regular electricity supply
(b) Automatically establishing the consent of all landowners
(c) Understanding the initial feasibility and the options for further investigation
(d) Replacing all other statutory clearances
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
The PFR is an initial study that prepares the basis for further detailed investigation and decision. It neither automatically establishes everyone's consent nor removes the need for the remaining clearances.
October 2026
FNTA Bill 2026 Gets Presidential Assent: Frontier Nagaland Territorial Authority
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which legislature passed the Frontier Nagaland Territorial Authority Bill 2026?
(a) Nagaland Assembly
(b) Parliament
(c) Assam Assembly
(d) Manipur Assembly
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to Akashvani, the Nagaland Assembly passed it unanimously on 3 September 2026.
Question 2. Which of the following districts is NOT included in the FNTA's six districts?
(a) Tuensang
(b) Mon
(c) Kiphire
(d) Dimapur
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d) Dimapur. According to the report, the six districts are Tuensang, Mon, Longleng, Kiphire, Noklak and Shamator.
Question 3. Consider the following statements with reference to the FNTA Bill:
Statement-I: It was passed unanimously by the Nagaland Assembly.
Statement-II: According to the report, it ends the special provisions of Article 371A.Which statement is correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) Only I. According to the report, Article 371A, BEFR 1873 and the exemption from Panchayati Raj will remain in force without amendment or dilution.
October 2026
Keen Sword 27: Japan-US Joint Exercise Begins in Ishigaki, Several Partner Countries Join
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Question 1. Keen Sword is the principal joint military exercise of which two countries?
(a) India and Japan
(b) Japan and the US
(c) India and the US
(d) Japan and Australia
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Japan and the US. As per Japan's Joint Staff, this is training for joint action with the US military for the defence of Japan.
Question 2. With reference to Keen Sword, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: This exercise takes place roughly every two years.
Statement 2: It is a bilateral exercise between India and Japan.Which statement is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only. As per Japan's Joint Staff, it has been held roughly every other year since fiscal year 1985. It is a Japan-US exercise, not an India-Japan one.
Question 3. According to the opening address, besides land, sea and air, which domains were added in this exercise?
(a) Space, cyber, electromagnetic and information
(b) Space only
(c) Cyber only
(d) No additional domain
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The Japanese commander spoke of practising joint operations combining the space, cyber, electromagnetic and information domains with land, sea and air.
October 2026
LTCG Tax: Government Ready to Hear Suggestions on Removal, Says Finance Minister
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Question 1. At which forum did the Finance Minister express readiness to hear suggestions on removing the LTCG tax?
(a) Bloomberg New Economy Forum, New Delhi
(b) World Economic Forum, Davos
(c) G-20 Finance Ministers' meeting
(d) NITI Aayog's Governing Council
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (a). According to Akashvani, she said this at the Bloomberg New Economy Forum in New Delhi on 13 October 2026.
Question 2. With reference to this statement of the Finance Minister, consider the following:
I. The government has announced that the LTCG tax will be abolished.
II. The government said it is ready to hear suggestions on removing LTCG during budget consultations.Which statement is correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (b) II only. According to the reports, this is readiness to hear suggestions, not an announcement of removing the tax.
Question 3. What is the full form of STT?
(a) Securities Transaction Tax
(b) State Trade Tax
(c) Stock Transfer Toll
(d) Short-Term Tariff
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (a). STT is the Securities Transaction Tax, which figured in the Finance Minister's address along with capital gains taxation.
October 2026
AATAL: An Integrated Air-Pollution Analysis Facility for Delhi-NCR
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. AATAL was inaugurated at the Delhi branch of which institution?
(a) IIT Delhi
(b) IITM
(c) NEERI
(d) CPCB
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) IITM. According to PIB, the inauguration took place at IITM's Delhi branch.
Question 2. With reference to AATAL, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: It is limited to reporting pollution levels.
Statement-II: It helps identify the composition of pollutants and the contribution of sources.Which of the above statements is correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only II. The facility's purpose is to go beyond numbers like the AQI and understand composition, sources and possible health effects.
Question 3. Which of the following statements about the AIRWISE system is correct?
(a) It gives an air-quality forecast for the next 72 hours at 400-metre resolution
(b) It only gives earthquake warnings
(c) It only monitors water quality
(d) It only forecasts sea storms
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the project team, AIRWISE gives a forecast for the next 72 hours at a spatial resolution of 400 metres.
October 2026
Cabinet Secretariat and the Election Commission: RTI Reveals Complaint by Two Election Commissioners
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission established?
(a) Article 315
(b) Article 324
(c) Article 280
(d) Article 148
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Article 324. The power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament and the state legislatures is vested in the Election Commission under Article 324.
2. In this news, why did the Cabinet Secretariat take no action on the letters of the two Election Commissioners?
(a) The letters were received late
(b) The letters were written in a personal capacity; there was no formal communication from the Commission
(c) The officer had already been transferred
(d) The matter was pending in court
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the report, the Secretariat's note said that the Commissioners had written the letters in their personal capacity, and that acting without formal communication from the Commission could be considered interference.
3. With reference to this news, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The officer concerned was appointed to the Commission by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
Statement-II: According to the news, the Commission said that the work-allocation orders in question were never implemented.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) Both I and II. According to the report, the ACC had appointed him on 2 September 2024, and the Commission said on 26 September that the orders were not implemented.
October 2026
Hydroseeding: Tata Steel Adopts the Technique to Restore Mining Land in Jharkhand's West Bokaro Division
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. What is generally done in the hydroseeding technique?
(a) Spraying a mixture of seeds, mulch, water and fertiliser on the ground
(b) Spraying only chemical pesticide
(c) Underground extraction of a mineral
(d) Desalination of water
See the answer and reasoning
Answer: (a). As per the report, in hydroseeding a mixture of seeds, mulch, water, fertiliser and other soil-amendment material is sprayed with specialised equipment.
Question 2. In which division has Tata Steel introduced hydroseeding?
(a) Jamshedpur Works
(b) West Bokaro Division
(c) Kalinganagar
(d) Noamundi
See the answer and reasoning
Answer: (b) West Bokaro Division. As per the report, this technique has been introduced in the West Bokaro Division in Jharkhand.
Question 3. Consider the following statements about hydroseeding:
I. It can be helpful in growing vegetation on steep slopes.
II. It is used only for irrigation.Which statement is correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See the answer and reasoning
Answer: (a) I only. This technique helps grow vegetation on hard slopes through a seed-mulch-water-fertiliser mixture. It is not a technique only for irrigation.
October 2026
Ranthambore Tiger Reserve: Tigress T-2403 Spotted with Three Cubs, Official Confirmation of Count Awaited
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Question 1. In which district is the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve located?
(a) Alwar
(b) Sawai Madhopur
(c) Kota
(d) Bundi
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Sawai Madhopur. The news report places the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan.
Question 2. Which method will the forest department use to confirm the number of T-2403's cubs?
(a) Pugmark counting
(b) Camera-trap images
(c) Satellite images
(d) Drone acoustic survey
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) camera-trap images. According to Ranthambore's Deputy Conservator of Forests, the number of cubs will be confirmed from camera-trap images.
Question 3. Consider the following statements with reference to this news:
Statement-I: The tigress T-2403 was seen with cubs in Zone 8.
Statement-II: The number of cubs has been officially confirmed.Which statement is correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) I only. The tigress was seen in Zone 8, but according to forest officials, official confirmation of the number of cubs is still pending.
October 2026
Melioidosis: 8.9% Prevalence Among High-Risk Hospitalised Adults in an Indian Multicentre Study
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Question 1. Melioidosis is caused by which bacterium?
(a) Vibrio cholerae
(b) Burkholderia pseudomallei
(c) Mycobacterium leprae
(d) Leptospira interrogans
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Burkholderia pseudomallei. This environmental Gram-negative bacterium is found in tropical soil and water, and it is the cause of melioidosis.
Question 2. According to the recent multicentre study (2023-25), what was the hospital-based prevalence of culture-confirmed melioidosis among admitted high-risk adults in India?
(a) 2.1%
(b) 4.7%
(c) 8.9%
(d) 15.2%
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 8.9%. Of the 2,953 high-risk adults admitted to 15 tertiary-care centres, 262 (8.9%) were found to have culture-confirmed melioidosis; prevalence was higher in Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka.
Question 3. With reference to melioidosis, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Human-to-human transmission is extremely rare.
Statement-II: The risk of melioidosis can rise with rain and the monsoon.
Statement-III: Diabetes is a major risk factor for it.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) I, II and III
View answer and explanation
Answer: (d) I, II and III. Human-to-human transmission is extremely rare, and diabetes is among the major risk factors. The risk can rise with rain and contact with contaminated soil and water. In the Indian study, 137 of the 262 culture-confirmed cases (52%) were admitted during the monsoon.
October 2026
INS Vikrant: Shore-Based Trials of the Rafale-Marine and the Assessment of Possible Minor Modifications
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Question 1. Where is the Indian Navy's Shore-Based Test Facility (SBTF), from which the Rafale-Marine trials are being conducted, located?
(a) INS Dega, Visakhapatnam
(b) INS Hansa, Goa
(c) INS Garuda, Kochi
(d) INS Shikra, Mumbai
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) INS Hansa, Goa. According to the reports, the Rafale-Marine trials are being conducted from the Shore-Based Test Facility located at INS Hansa in Goa, which replicates a carrier deck.
Question 2. Why can there be a need for possible minor changes on the aircraft carrier for the Rafale-Marine?
(a) Because of its non-folding wings, an assessment of the arrangement for parking and moving it is essential
(b) The capacity of the ship's engine has to be increased
(c) The helicopter hangar has to be expanded
(d) The radar system has to be replaced entirely
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). The Rafale-Marine's non-folding wings take up space on the ship. So the arrangement for parking it on the deck and in the hangar, and for moving it between the two, and possible minor changes are being assessed.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: INS Vikrant is India's first indigenous aircraft carrier, built at Cochin Shipyard.
Statement-II: India signed a deal for 26 Rafale-Marine aircraft in April 2025.
Statement-III: INS Vikrant operates on the CATOBAR (catapult-based) system.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) I, II and III
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) Only I and II. INS Vikrant operates on the STOBAR (ski-jump + arrested recovery) configuration, not CATOBAR, so Statement III is wrong. Statements I and II are correct.
October 2026
Oskar Klein Medal 2026: Prof. Ashoke Sen the First Indian Winner
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Question 1. Who is the first Indian physicist to be honoured with the Oskar Klein Medal 2026?
(a) Rohini Godbole
(b) Ashoke Sen
(c) Rajesh Gopakumar
(d) Thanu Padmanabhan
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Ashoke Sen. According to PTI/The Hindu (24 October 2026), Prof. Ashoke Sen (ICTS, Bengaluru) is the first Indian physicist to receive the Oskar Klein Medal; the basis of selection is his contribution to S-duality, black hole entropy and string field theory.
Question 2. The Oskar Klein Medal is awarded jointly by which institutions?
(a) Oxford University and the Royal Society
(b) Stockholm University and the Nobel Committee for Physics
(c) CERN and the European Physical Society
(d) Princeton University and the American Physical Society
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Stockholm University and the Nobel Committee for Physics. Since 1988 this medal has been awarded jointly by Stockholm University and the Nobel Committee for Physics of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences in memory of the Swedish theoretical physicist Oskar Klein.
Question 3. Consider the following statements with reference to Prof. Ashoke Sen:
I. He is the ICTS-Infosys Madhava Chair Professor at ICTS Bengaluru.
II. He has already received the Breakthrough Prize in 2012 and the Dirac Medal in 2014.
III. His selection is for the development of quantum computing hardware.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) I and II only. Prof. Sen is the ICTS-Infosys Madhava Chair Professor at ICTS Bengaluru and has already received the Breakthrough Prize (2012) and the Dirac Medal (2014). Statement III is incorrect - the selection for the Oskar Klein Medal 2026 is for S-duality, the precise computation of black hole entropy and string field theory, not for quantum computing hardware.
October 2026
Osbeckia assamensis: A New Flowering Plant Species from Manas National Park (Prelims Practice)
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Where was the recently discovered new flowering species Osbeckia assamensis found?
(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Manas National Park
(c) Nameri National Park
(d) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Manas National Park. Osbeckia assamensis was found in the grassland areas of Manas National Park in Assam; the species is so far known only from this type locality (NENow, 22 October 2026).
Question 2. Osbeckia assamensis belongs to which botanical family?
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Orchidaceae
(c) Melastomataceae
(d) Poaceae
See answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Melastomataceae. According to the description published in Phytotaxa, it is a species of the Melastomataceae family - a family counted among the ten largest families of flowering plants.
Question 3. Consider the following statements with reference to Osbeckia assamensis:
Statement 1: Its taxonomic description has been published in the journal Phytotaxa.
Statement 2: The IUCN Red List has listed it in the 'Data Deficient' category.
Statement 3: This species is so far known only from its type locality.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. The description was published in Phytotaxa 781(3) on 22 October 2026 and the species is known only from Manas (the type locality). Statement 2 is wrong - the 'Data Deficient' category is the researchers' proposal based on the IUCN criteria; the IUCN Red List's formal assessment or entry has not yet been published.
October 2026
ESTIC 2026: Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave at Bharat Mandapam, 27-29 October
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Question 1. When and where was ESTIC 2026 held?
(a) 26-28 October 2026, Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
(b) 27-29 October 2026, Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
(c) 3-5 November 2026, Hyderabad International Convention Centre
(d) 27-29 October 2026, Mahatma Mandir, Gandhinagar
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 27-29 October 2026, Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. According to PIB (26 October 2026), the curtain-raiser of ESTIC 2026 was held at ICGEB New Delhi and the main conclave is scheduled for 27-29 October 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Question 2. Which body is organising ESTIC 2026?
(a) Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
(b) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
(c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). ESTIC 2026 is a flagship national forum organised by CSIR under the guidance of the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA). DBT will run the "System and Synthetic Biology" session at the conclave - do not confuse the organiser with the session runner.
Question 3. Consider the following statements with reference to ICGEB:
Statement 1: Its headquarters is in Trieste (Italy).
Statement 2: Its component centres are in New Delhi and Cape Town.
Statement 3: It is an autonomous body of NITI Aayog.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) I and II only. ICGEB (International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology) is an international research organisation - headquarters in Trieste (Italy), component centres in New Delhi and Cape Town (South Africa). It is not a body of NITI Aayog, so Statement III is wrong.
October 2026
Temple Economy and Religious Tourism: Figures, Employment, Heritage and the Way Forward
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Question 1. The PRASHAD scheme, run for tourism infrastructure at pilgrimage and heritage sites, belongs to which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(b) Ministry of Tourism
(c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Ministry of Tourism. PRASHAD = Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive - a central sector scheme of the Ministry of Tourism; by July 2025, 54 projects (estimated cost ₹1726.74 crore) had been approved.
October 2026
The Maritime Sector's First Dedicated NBFC: SMFCL's Expansion; MDF's ₹5,000 Crore First-Close Target January 2027
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. SMFCL is the first dedicated NBFC of which sector?
(a) Railways
(b) Maritime
(c) Energy
(d) Agriculture
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Maritime. Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL) is the maritime sector's first dedicated non-banking financial company.
Question 2. Who is the fund manager of the MDF's MIF component?
(a) SBI Ventures Limited
(b) LIC
(c) NIIF
(d) HDFC Asset Management
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) SBI Ventures Limited. SBI Ventures Limited is appointed for the MIF component; AIF registration with SEBI is due by the end of November and the target of the first close of ₹5,000 crore is January 2027.
Question 3. What is the function of the IIF (interest incentive fund)?
(a) Ship registration
(b) Interest subvention to eligible shipyards/borrowers
(c) Collection of port charges
(d) Fixing of customs duty
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Interest subvention to eligible shipyards/borrowers. The IIF gives interest subvention to reduce the borrowing cost of eligible shipyards and borrowers; the portal www.iifmdf.in is live.
October 2026
FSDC's 30th Meeting: Discussion on Financial Stability, Cyber Strategy and Tokenisation
Read the full article →October 2026
Land Warfare Doctrine Released: 20-30 Year Strategic Vision at Army Commanders' Conference, Record Defence Production
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. How much was defence production in financial year 2025-26 (according to the release)?
(a) ₹1.27 lakh crore
(b) ₹1.78 lakh crore
(c) ₹2.5 lakh crore
(d) ₹98,000 crore
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) ₹1.78 lakh crore. The Defence Minister's statement put defence production in FY 2025-26 at a record ₹1.78 lakh crore; defence exports were about ₹38,000 crore.
Question 2. Who released the Land Warfare Doctrine?
(a) The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
(b) The Army Chief
(c) The Defence Minister
(d) The National Security Advisor
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) the Defence Minister. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh released this doctrine document at the Army Commanders' Conference (23 October 2026, New Delhi).
Question 3. Which approach was emphasised for war preparedness at the conference?
(a) Only nuclear deterrence
(b) Multi-domain capability and coordination in joint operations
(c) Only border fortification
(d) Foreign arms imports
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) multi-domain capability and coordination in joint operations. An integrated approach across all domains, including air, sea, space and cyber, and seamless coordination in joint operations were spoken of; land warfare was called indispensable.
October 2026
Sidhi's First Rail Link: Satna-Devendra Nagar and Rewa-Churhat Practice Questions
Read the full article →October 2026
Prelims Practice, 23 Oct: Magnitude 7 Earthquake in Nagqu, Tibet - 16 Dead, Geography and Risks of the Plateau
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Question 1. In which region did the Nagqu earthquake (23 October 2026) occur?
(a) Xinjiang
(b) Tibet
(c) Yunnan
(d) Sichuan
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Tibet. Nagqu is a high-Himalayan plateau city of the Tibet region; the earthquake was of magnitude 7.
Question 2. What is called the "Third Pole"?
(a) Antarctica
(b) Greenland
(c) Tibetan Plateau
(d) Arctic
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Tibetan Plateau. After the North and South Poles, the largest amount of ice is here; it is also called the "Roof of the World".
Question 3. What is permafrost?
(a) A glacier that is always melted
(b) A layer of soil-rock that stays frozen all year round
(c) A wave of desert sand
(d) A layer of volcanic ash
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) A layer of soil-rock that stays frozen all year round. Its thawing raises risks such as landslides and GLOF.
October 2026
"Alberta Referendum: 75.5% Chose to Remain in Canada (Partial Count)"
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Question 1. What was the nature of the Alberta referendum (19 October 2026)?
(a) Binding - separation would take effect at once
(b) Non-binding - it does not legally implement separation
(c) A constitutional amendment
(d) An impeachment process
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Non-binding. It is a means of knowing public opinion; even if a majority favoured separation, legal separation would not happen automatically.
Question 2. Per the partial count (4,613/5,584 stations), what percentage of voters chose to remain in Canada?
(a) 51.2%
(b) 75.5%
(c) 24.5%
(d) 88%
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) 75.5%. 24.5% voted in favour of the process of a binding referendum on separation; the count was partial, not final.
Question 3. Alberta is the oil-rich province of which country?
(a) United States
(b) Australia
(c) Canada
(d) Norway
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Canada. Alberta provides the largest share of Canada's crude oil production and is a province bordering the United States.
October 2026
National Recognition for 16 Indigenous Breeds: Gazette Notification Issued, 262 Registered Breeds in All
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Question 1. By which notification were the 16 new breeds declared "notified breeds"?
(a) S.O. 5675(E), 16 October 2026
(b) S.O. 1234(E), 2025
(c) G.S.R. 99, 2026
(d) Presidential Ordinance, 2026
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) S.O. 5675(E), 16 October 2026. This notification was published in the Gazette on 19 October 2026; the registration was approved at the BRC's 14th meeting of 7 August 2026.
Question 2. Which is the nodal institution for registering livestock breeds?
(a) ICAR-NBAGR, Karnal
(b) NDDB, Anand
(c) IVRI, Bareilly
(d) NABARD, Mumbai
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) ICAR-NBAGR, Karnal. It is the National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources that gives each breed a specific accession number.
Question 3. After this addition, what is the total number of registered breeds in the country?
(a) 216
(b) 246
(c) 262
(d) 280
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) 262. This includes 258 indigenous and 4 synthetic breeds.
October 2026
Missing Head of Vishnu Statue at Khajuraho's Javari Temple Found; ASI to Rejoin It
Read the full article →October 2026
Sakharov Prize 2026: The International Criminal Court and its Officials
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Question 1. To whom was the Sakharov Prize 2026 given?
(a) To Greta Thunberg
(b) To the International Criminal Court (ICC) and its officials
(c) To UNICEF
(d) To the people of Ukraine
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) To the ICC and its officials. European Parliament President Roberta Metsola announced it on 22 October 2026; the ceremony will be held in December in Strasbourg.
Question 2. By which institution and for which field is the Sakharov Prize given?
(a) United Nations, for peace
(b) European Parliament, for freedom of thought
(c) Amnesty International, for human rights
(d) Nobel Committee, for literature
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) European Parliament, for freedom of thought. Since 1988 this prize honours work for human rights and freedom of expression.
Question 3. By which international treaty is the ICC governed?
(a) Geneva Convention
(b) Vienna Convention
(c) Rome Statute
(d) Hague Treaty
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) Rome Statute. This very treaty gives the ICC jurisdiction over genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and aggression.
October 2026
Prelims Practice: Shamonda Virus - First Recorded Human Case in France
Read the full article →October 2026
World Bank's First Digital Strategy: From Connectivity to "Small AI"
Read the full article →October 2026
NHAI's NCR Dust Control: 60 Sprinklers, 14 Anti-Smog Guns; Reuse of Landfill Inert Material
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. About how many anti-smog guns has NHAI deployed for dust control in Delhi-NCR?
(a) 10
(b) 14
(c) 23
(d) 60
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 14. About 60 water-sprinkling tankers/sprinklers and 23 mechanical road sweeping machines (MRSMs) are also deployed; 13 MRSMs are running on 157 km sections.
Question 2. Where was the about 13.58 lakh tonnes of inert material from Delhi's landfills used?
(a) In the Okhla waste-to-energy plant
(b) In the construction of embankments of the UER-II and DND-Sohna corridors
(c) In tunnel filling of the Delhi Metro
(d) In the widening of NH-48
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) In the construction of embankments of the UER-II and DND-Sohna corridors. This is a combination of reducing garbage mountains and road construction (waste to wealth).
Question 3. In the review, NHAI was directed to comply with the norms of which body?
(a) CPCB
(b) CAQM
(c) NGT
(d) MoEFCC
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) CAQM (Commission for Air Quality Management). It includes covering of construction material, dust-free road surfaces and quick measures in line with GRAP stages; daily reporting with geo-tagged photos is also mentioned.
October 2026
Kittur Rani Chennamma: Parliament Commemoration and Prelims Practice
Read the full article →October 2026
Postal Department's Record: Revenue Above Rs 4,000 Crore for Two Consecutive Quarters, 24% Growth in the First Half
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Question 1. What was the Department of Posts' revenue in the first half of financial year 2026-27 (April-September 2026)?
(a) Rs 6,636 crore
(b) Rs 4,201.5 crore
(c) Rs 8,212.7 crore
(d) Rs 318.9 crore
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Rs 8,212.7 crore. A rise of 24% over the Rs 6,636 crore of the same period last year; Q2 revenue was Rs 4,201.5 crore.
Question 2. In Q2 (July-September 2026), which vertical saw the fastest annual growth?
(a) Post Office Savings Bank (POSB)
(b) Mail
(c) Parcel
(d) PLI/RPLI
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Parcel (+71%). It was followed by PLI/RPLI +44%, international relations and global business +38%, mail +36% and POSB +18%.
Question 3. Which postal circle led in Q2 target achievement?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (97.15%)
(b) Bihar (97.15%)
(c) West Bengal (94.79%)
(d) North East (97.07%)
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Bihar (97.15%). With West Bengal 97.07% and North East 94.79%, it was in the leading three; the Bihar circle was awarded in Q2.
October 2026
12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum: 26-27 October 2026, in the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan
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Question 1. Where will the 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum 2026 be held?
(a) Ashoka Hotel, New Delhi
(b) The Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan
(c) Vigyan Bhavan, New Delhi
(d) Hyderabad House, New Delhi
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) The Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan. The Indian Parliament will host the forum in the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan on 26-27 October 2026; the inauguration is on 26 October.
Question 2. What is the central theme of the 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum?
(a) Collective leadership of the Global South
(b) Empowering Parliaments for People-Centric Development
(c) Reform of the multilateral trading system
(d) Climate-resilient economies
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Empowering Parliaments for People-Centric Development. According to the release text, this is the central theme; the four sessions are on Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability.
Question 3. According to the Lok Sabha Speaker's statement (quoted in the release), how many member and how many partner countries does BRICS currently have?
(a) 10 members, 11 partners
(b) 11 members, 10 partners
(c) 9 members, 12 partners
(d) 12 members, 9 partners
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 11 members and 10 partner countries. Presiding officers and delegations of the parliaments of these countries will take part in the forum.
October 2026
Yamuna Kayakalp: Rs 8,941 Crore of Projects in Delhi - 10 Inaugurated, 33 Foundation Stones Laid
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Question 1. On 22 October 2026, projects related to Yamuna Kayakalp of what total cost were inaugurated or had their foundations laid in Delhi?
(a) ₹2,534 crore
(b) ₹6,969 crore
(c) ₹8,941 crore
(d) ₹25,446 crore
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) ₹8,941 crore. According to the Home Ministry's release, 10 projects were inaugurated and foundations laid for 33; the total cost is ₹8,941 crore.
Question 2. Under the joint roadmap, what is the target year for cleaning the Yamuna?
(a) 2027
(b) 2028
(c) 2029
(d) 2030
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) 2029. In the joint time-bound roadmap of the Centre and the governments of Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh, the target is to clean the Yamuna by 2029.
Question 3. Under Delhi's action plan, about how much work has been stated to be completed so far?
(a) About 20%
(b) About 40%
(c) About 60%
(d) About 75%
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) About 40%. According to the Home Minister's address (quoted from the release), about 40% of the work under the action plan given to Delhi has been completed.
October 2026
Kashi Tamil Sangamam 5.0: 28 November to 12 December 2026, Registration Portal Launched
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Question 1. When will Kashi Tamil Sangamam 5.0 be held?
(a) 26-27 October 2026
(b) 28 November to 12 December 2026
(c) 3-5 November 2026
(d) 1-15 January 2027
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 28 November to 12 December 2026. According to the Ministry of Education's release, the fifth edition begins on 28 November and runs until 12 December 2026; registration is open until 13 November 2026.
Question 2. In which year was the first edition of the Kashi Tamil Sangamam held?
(a) 2019
(b) 2020
(c) 2022
(d) 2024
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2022. The Kashi Tamil Sangamam began in 2022; the 2026 event is the fifth edition.
Question 3. Which institution hosts the KTS 5.0 registration portal?
(a) Banaras Hindu University
(b) IIT Madras
(c) Central Institute of Classical Tamil, Chennai
(d) National e-Library
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) IIT Madras. The portal kashitam.iitm.ac.in is hosted by IIT Madras; BHU and CICT are also partners in the event.
October 2026
Chinmaya Amrit Mahotsav Global Convention: Prime Minister's Inauguration at Bharat Mandapam
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Question 1. Where was the Chinmaya Amrit Mahotsav Global Convention inaugurated?
(a) Pragati Maidan Convention Centre
(b) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
(c) Vigyan Bhavan
(d) Yashobhoomi, Dwarka
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Bharat Mandapam. On 23 October 2026 the Prime Minister inaugurated the convention at Bharat Mandapam; an experiential dialogue with Swami Chinmayananda was also presented through holobot technology.
Question 2. Who gave the first financial contribution to Eknath Ranade, the person behind the concept of the Vivekananda Rock Memorial (Kanyakumari)?
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Swami Chinmayananda
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sardar Patel
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Swami Chinmayananda. According to the Prime Minister's address, the first financial contribution to Ranade's resolve was given by Swami Chinmayananda.
Question 3. What is the "Gita Jnana Yajna" associated with Swami Chinmayananda?
(a) A series of Vedic fire rituals
(b) A lecture tradition for spreading the knowledge of the Gita
(c) An annual music festival
(d) A temple-building campaign
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Gita Jnana Yajna is the tradition of wide propagation of the Gita's knowledge started by Swami Chinmayananda.
October 2026
Agrivoltaics: Crop and Solar Power in the Same Field; 7th World Conference in Delhi
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Question 1. What does agrivoltaics mean?
(a) A cable-irrigation system in fields
(b) Crop and solar-energy production together on the same land
(c) Solar charging from gobar gas
(d) Biofuel from agricultural waste
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). In agrivoltaics, panels are mounted on raised structures so that a crop can be grown underneath - dual use of land and additional electricity income for the farmer.
Question 2. According to the PIB feature, what was the number of operational agrivoltaics projects in India by August 2025, and their total capacity?
(a) 36 projects; 37.54 megawatts
(b) 10 projects; 100 kilowatts
(c) 46 projects; 3,000 gigawatts
(d) 36 projects; 47.35 gigawatts
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 36 projects; 37.54 megawatts. 10 pilots are under development; 3,000-14,000 gigawatts is the estimated potential range, not current capacity; 47.35 million hectares is the figure for suitable land.
Question 3. NISE's Agrivoltaics Centre of Excellence is with which institution?
(a) ICAR-IARI
(b) IIT Delhi
(c) CSIR
(d) NAAS
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a) ICAR-IARI. It is a joint Centre of Excellence of the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) and the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI); a 100-kilowatt pilot is running at IARI.
October 2026
Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD) 2026: 3-5 November in New Delhi, 18 Countries
Read the full article →October 2026
CREA's Analysis: Four Years of GRAP; No Consistent Improvement in Delhi's Winter Air
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Question 1. Who implements GRAP in the National Capital Region?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
(b) Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)
(c) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
(d) Delhi government's Environment Department
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) CAQM. The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is an arrangement of four-stage emergency measures applied by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) on the basis of forecasts.
Question 2. According to CREA's analysis, what was the winter average (mean) AQI of 2025-26?
(a) 280
(b) 285
(c) 295
(d) 304
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 295. According to CREA, the sequence of the winter mean AQI was 280 (2022-23) → 304 (2023-24) → 285 (2024-25) → 295 (2025-26) - the latest winter higher than 2022-23.
Question 3. Where is CREA (Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air) located?
(a) Oslo, Norway
(b) Stockholm, Sweden
(c) Helsinki, Finland
(d) Copenhagen, Denmark
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Helsinki. CREA is an independent non-profit research organisation located in Helsinki, the capital of Finland, which researches pollution trends and solutions.
October 2026
Firing on a Church in Karak, Jordan: 9 Dead at a Funeral Gathering, Three Days of National Mourning
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Question 1. The village of Hammud (Karak governorate), in the news after the recent attack on the Saint George Greek Orthodox Church, is in which country?
(a) Lebanon
(b) Jordan
(c) Syria
(d) Israel
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Jordan. Hammud is a village in Jordan's mid-western Karak (Al-Karak) governorate. Supporting facts for the concept: Jordan is a Hashemite kingdom in West Asia - capital Amman; on its western edge lie the Jordan River and the Dead Sea, whose shore is the lowest land point on Earth (about 430 metres).
October 2026
SAMHiTA: Digitising Sri Lanka's Manuscripts (Prelims Practice)
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Question 1. Consider the following statements in the context of SAMHiTA:
- It is an initiative to link information on Indian and South Asian manuscripts held outside India through institutional cooperation.
- The Gangaramaya Temple is located in Sri Lanka.
- According to reports of October 2026, the digitisation of all the manuscripts of the temple had been completed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) The first two statements are correct. The reports mention work under way on 100 manuscripts and its expected completion by the end of November. The claim of completion in October is not correct.
October 2026
India's Defence Exports and Europe: The Difference Between Total Figures and a Regional Ranking
Read the full article →October 2026
Snow Leopard: Estimate of 718 in the First National Assessment, 477 in Ladakh
Read the full article →October 2026
Antarctica's Lake Untersee: Water Level Rose 2 Metres After the 2019 Glacial Outburst (Prelims Practice)
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Question 1. Lake Untersee, which came into discussion from the study of the 2019 glacial outburst flood (GLOF), is located where?
(a) The Arctic
(b) Greenland
(c) Antarctica
(d) The Andes
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Antarctica. Lake Untersee is a year-round ice-covered lake located at a height of 563 metres in Queen Maud Land, East Antarctica (Gruber Mountains, Wohlthat range). In January 2019 a flow from neighbouring Lake Obersee raised its water level by about 2 metres; the 2021 study found that this increased benthic microbial productivity.
October 2026
The Announced Programme of 25 October: Varanasi and Bhubaneswar
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Germany Talks: Trade, Investment and Industrial Research
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Question 1. What role has Levin Holle been described as holding?
(a) German defence minister
(b) Economic and financial policy adviser at the German Federal Chancellery and G7/G20 sherpa
(c) President of the European Central Bank
(d) Director-General of the World Trade Organization
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Economic and financial policy adviser at the German Federal Chancellery and G7/G20 sherpa. The release identifies him as the Chancellery's economic and financial policy adviser and the G7/G20 sherpa.
Question 2. What was the dialogue with the Fraunhofer institutes related to?
(a) Only cultural festivals
(b) Industrial research and emerging technologies
(c) Only military exercises
(d) A new currency union
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Industrial research and emerging technologies. The discussions included areas such as industrial technology, research, smart manufacturing and battery technology.
October 2026
Rail Security: GRP Chiefs' Conference and RailMadad
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Question 1. Who organised the conference?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Railway Protection Force
(c) Centre for Railway Information Systems
(d) National Security Council
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Railway Protection Force. According to PIB, the conference was organised by the RPF.
Question 2. To which platform were GRP personnel linked for complaint redress?
(a) RailMadad
(b) Project Disha
(c) Pink Patrol
(d) PM Gati Shakti
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) RailMadad. CRIS did the work of linking GRP personnel to RailMadad.
October 2026
Farmer ID: The Milestone of 11 Crore Digital Identities
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Question 1. With reference to the farmer ID, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a farmer digital-identity initiative under the Digital Agriculture Mission.
Statement 2: Once the ID is created, eligibility for every scheme is automatically ensured.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1. The purpose of a digital identity is to ease access to services. It does not take the place of each scheme's separate eligibility conditions.
Question 2. Which number was announced as achieved in the release of 24 October?
(a) 1 crore farmer IDs
(b) 5 crore farmer IDs
(c) 11 crore farmer IDs
(d) 20 crore farmer IDs
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 11 crore farmer IDs. The Agriculture Ministry said this number was reached by the night of 23 October. The different official releases differ on the target date.
October 2026
Indigenous AIP System: The Second Testing Phase of the Submarine Energy Module
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Question 1. Which of the statements about the indigenous AIP energy module are correct?
Statement 1: It has been developed by DRDO's Naval Materials Research Laboratory (NMRL).
Statement 2: Its purpose is to increase the underwater endurance of diesel-electric submarines by reducing their dependence on atmospheric oxygen.
Statement 3: The release of 24 October 2026 announced the completion of integration into a Kalvari-class submarine.(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) - The first and second statements are verified from the Ministry of Defence's release. The third is wrong: the release states the target of early 2027 for integration - the STW-2 inauguration is still an intermediate testing phase, not complete integration.
October 2026
Vanuatu Earthquake: The Initial Tsunami Concern and the Final Assessment
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Question 1. Which statements about Vanuatu and the earthquake of 24 October 2026 are correct?
- Vanuatu's capital Port Vila is located on Efate island.
- PTWC's final message (03:28 UTC) reported that the tsunami danger from this event had passed.
- PTWC's final message is by itself the withdrawal of every country's local warning order.
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) - Port Vila is on Efate island (the Vanuatu government's country introduction) and PTWC said at 03:28 UTC that the danger had passed. The third statement is wrong: PTWC gives information to national authorities; the decision on local warning levels and their withdrawal is made by each country's own officials.
October 2026
ISRO's NVS-03 Launch Set for 30 October: NavIC's Satellite Shortfall and the Importance of the Indigenous Clock
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Question 1. As per the parliamentary information of July 2026, how many satellites in the NavIC constellation are providing PNT service, and what is the minimum number of satellites required for the basic positioning service?
(a) 4 in service, 4 minimum
(b) 3 in service, 4 minimum
(c) 3 in service, 3 minimum
(d) 5 in service, 4 minimum
View answer and reason
Answer: (b) 3 in service, 4 minimum. As per the Lok Sabha written answer of 29 July 2026, three satellites - IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I and NVS-01 - are providing PNT service, while at least four working satellites are needed for basic positioning; so an independent positioning service is not available for now, although the timing service is running.
October 2026
Walkie-Talkie Advertisements: The Difference Between Regulatory Permission and Information to the Consumer
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Question 1. Which of the following statements about the CCPA's action on walkie-talkie advertisements is/are correct?
Statement 1: If a website has no payment gateway, the product promotion there goes out of the scope of a misleading-advertisement examination by itself.
Statement 2: Even after regulatory approval, the duty to give the necessary information in an advertisement can remain.(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only. According to the CCPA, even with approvals like DPL/ETA, the responsibility of stating the frequency, licence requirement and conditions of use in the advertisement is not erased. The first statement is wrong: promotion on a website without a direct online transaction can also come under the misleading-advertisement test of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
October 2026
Operation Trident: Official Update of 25 October on the 23 October Action
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Question 1. Which of the following statements about 'Operation Trident' (official update of 25 October 2026) is/are correct?
1. The joint raids in Assam, Mizoram and Manipur took place on the morning of 23 October 2026.
2. The freezing of a bank account is equivalent to that person's judicial conviction.(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only. The raids took place on 23 October; 25 October is the date of the Home Ministry's official details. The second statement is wrong: an account freeze is a stop during investigation - neither final seizure nor conviction; an arrest by itself does not prove a crime either.
October 2026
The Bonin Islands Earthquake: The Geology of a 492-Kilometre-Deep Focus
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Question 1. With reference to the Bonin (Ogasawara) earthquake, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Statement 1: The Ogasawara islands are an island arc of the north-western Pacific Ocean, associated with Japan.
Statement 2: An earthquake with a depth of ~492 km is counted as a "shallow" earthquake in the USGS classification.(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only. Ogasawara is an island group of Japan (UNESCO World Heritage, 2011). The second statement is wrong: according to the USGS, a depth of 300-700 km falls in the category of deep earthquakes; shallow earthquakes are up to ~70 km.
October 2026
Asian Para Games 2026: India's Record 114 Medals and Prelims Practice
Read the full article →October 2026
Vanuatu Earthquake: The Initial Tsunami Threat and the Final Assessment
Read the full article →October 2026
Emergency Braking in Cars: AEBS Proposed for New Models from October 2030
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Question 1. Consider the following statements regarding the proposal for AEBS in cars:
- AEBS can apply the brakes on its own in an emergency when the driver does not react.
- There are separate proposed timelines for new M1 models and for models already in production.
- AEBS became mandatory in all cars in October 2026 itself.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. AEBS helps with emergency braking. The reported change is a draft proposal, with October 2030 for new models and October 2032 for existing models. The third statement is incorrect.
October 2026
Prelims Practice on the Major News of 23 October
Read the full article →October 2026
A Carbon-Free Analog of Ferrocene - Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following about the new carbon-free ferrocene analog:
Statement 1: Its central metal is osmium.
Statement 2: Its outer rings are made only of carbon atoms.
Statement 3: The term "carbon-free" by itself proves zero emissions for the entire manufacturing process.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Only one. The first statement is correct. The rings are of boron-hydrogen, not carbon. Here carbon-free describes the compound's composition; no conclusion about the life-cycle emissions of manufacturing follows from it.
Question 2. The NMR used in the study is mainly related to which of the following?
(a) Studying the signals of atomic nuclei in a magnetic field
(b) Measuring the direction of ocean currents
(c) Measuring the speed of seismic waves
(d) Controlling a satellite's orbit
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). NMR gives information about the chemical environment of a substance's atomic nuclei. In this study it was used, along with X-ray analysis, to identify the structure.
October 2026
India-Russia Naval Exercise INDRA 2026 Concludes: INS Sahyadri Departs Vladivostok
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Question 1. What kind of exercise is INDRA?
(a) India-Indonesia air
(b) India-Russia bilateral naval
(c) India-France army
(d) Multilateral maritime security
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) India-Russia bilateral naval. INDRA is a bilateral exercise series between India and Russia; INDRA 2026 was its naval edition.
Question 2. Which ship represented the Indian side in INDRA 2026?
(a) INS Vikrant
(b) INS Sahyadri
(c) INS Kadmat
(d) INS Sumedha
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) INS Sahyadri. The Indian naval ship INS Sahyadri took part; it departed Vladivostok on 20 October 2026.
Question 3. Which city was the venue of INDRA 2026?
(a) Murmansk
(b) Sochi
(c) Vladivostok
(d) Saint Petersburg
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Vladivostok. The exercise took place in Vladivostok (Russia), which is Russia's principal Pacific-coast naval headquarters.
October 2026
Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD) 2026: New Delhi, 3-5 November
Read the full article →October 2026
Mussel - CMFRI's Open-Sea Farming
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Question 1. Mussels are organisms of which class?
(a) Arthropods
(b) Bivalve molluscs
(c) Reptiles
(d) Shrimp
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Bivalve molluscs.
Question 2. By what do mussels attach to hard surfaces?
(a) Paddle
(b) Byssus threads
(c) Clamp
(d) Sticky fluid
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Byssus threads.
Question 3. Why are mussels considered useful in pollution studies?
(a) Fast swimmer
(b) Pollutant accumulation from filter-feeding
(c) Deep pits
(d) Colour change
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Pollutant accumulation from filter-feeding.
October 2026
SUVIKALP — The Coal Mine Repurposing Tool
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Question 1. SUVIKALP is a tool associated with which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Mines
(b) Ministry of Coal
(c) Ministry of Environment
(d) Ministry of Steel
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Ministry of Coal. The CCO is under it
Question 2. Which honour did SUVIKALP receive in 2026?
(a) National Water Award
(b) SKOCH Gold Award
(c) Gandhi Peace Prize
(d) PM's Award
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) SKOCH Gold Award.
Question 3. What is PRISM related to?
(a) A post-mining repurposing implementation model
(b) Satellite navigation
(c) Cyber security
(d) Insurance
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) A post-mining repurposing implementation model.
October 2026
Kushiyara River: India-Bangladesh Water Sharing
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Question 1. The Kushiyara is a distributary of which river?
(a) Teesta
(b) Barak
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Surma
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Barak. The Barak divides into the Surma and Kushiyara at Amalshid.
Question 2. Under the 2022 MoU, how much water may each country withdraw during the dry season?
(a) 1.82 cusecs
(b) 153 cusecs
(c) 500 cusecs
(d) 1,000 cusecs
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Up to 153 cusecs. Each side may withdraw this amount from the common stretch for consumptive needs during 1 November-31 May. A joint team monitors withdrawals.
Question 3. Which river system includes the Kushiyara?
(a) Indus
(b) Narmada
(c) Surma-Meghna
(d) Mahanadi
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Surma-Meghna. After branching from the Barak, the Kushiyara joins the Surma-Meghna system in Bangladesh.
October 2026
Police Commemoration Day 2026: Nationwide Ceremonies in Memory of the Hot Springs Martyrs
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Question 1. On which date is Police Commemoration Day observed every year?
(a) 15 October
(b) 21 October
(c) 26 January
(d) 14 November
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 21 October. In memory of the Hot Springs incident of 21 October 1959.
Question 2. The origin of Police Commemoration Day is linked to which incident?
(a) The Battle of Rezang La of the 1962 India-China war
(b) The martyrdom of 10 police personnel at Hot Springs, Ladakh, in 1959
(c) A police action of the 1965 India-Pakistan war
(d) The role of the Border Security Force in the 1971 war
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) The martyrdom of 10 police personnel at Hot Springs, Ladakh, in 1959. The Home Ministry's press release mentions exactly this.
Question 3. Which statement about the National Police Memorial is correct?
(a) It is located in Gwalior
(b) It was dedicated to the nation in 2018
(c) The 'Amar Jawan Jyoti' is located in it
(d) It is open only to the families of the martyrs
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) It was dedicated to the nation in 2018. Located in Chanakyapuri, New Delhi; open to everyone except on Monday.
October 2026
A Rare Sighting of the European Bee-Eater: Recorded at Chennai's Adyar Estuary After Decades
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which species was recorded in the recent rare sighting at Chennai's Adyar estuary?
(a) Blue-tailed bee-eater
(b) European bee-eater
(c) Eurasian wryneck
(d) Rosy starling
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) European bee-eater. The European bee-eater (Merops apiaster). The blue-tailed bee-eater is common in Chennai; the wryneck had been seen there several times before. The juvenile bird was identified by its yellow throat, broad dark trailing edge and pale blue-green wings.
Question 2. What is the scientific name of the European bee-eater?
(a) Merops philippinus
(b) Merops orientalis
(c) Merops apiaster
(d) Merops leschenaulti
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Merops apiaster. It is a species of the family Meropidae; Merops philippinus is the blue-tailed bee-eater and Merops orientalis is the green bee-eater, both common in India.
Question 3. With reference to the European bee-eater, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Its status on the IUCN Red List is 'Least Concern' (LC).
Statement 2: It is a full migrant species.
Statement 3: The Adyar estuary and Pallikaranai are coastal wetland areas.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) All three. According to the BirdLife factsheet, its IUCN status is LC (Least Concern) and it is a full migrant; the Adyar estuary and Pallikaranai are Chennai's coastal wetland areas, whose ecological role can be asked about in the examination.
October 2026
Cheer Pheasant: Himachal Pradesh's Reintroduction Programme
Read the full article →October 2026
The Baltic Sea: Geography and Why It Is in the News
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Which of the following countries is not a coastal country of the Baltic Sea?
(a) Poland
(b) Norway
(c) Latvia
(d) Germany
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b) Norway. The nine coastal countries are: Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Russia, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland and Germany. Parts of Norway fall in the Baltic's catchment area, but it is not a coastal country.
2. With reference to the Baltic Sea, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: By area it is the world's largest brackish water body.
Statement 2: By water volume it is larger than the Black Sea.
Statement 3: It has no significant tide.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All three
See the answer and reason
Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3. Statement 2 is incorrect: by water volume the Baltic Sea is smaller than the Black Sea, although by area it is the world's largest brackish water body. It has no significant tide.
3. Through which waterways is the Baltic Sea connected to the North Sea?
Statement 1: Belt Sea
Statement 2: The Sound (Danish Straits)
Statement 3: KattegatWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the answer and reason
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. The Baltic Sea is connected to the North Sea through the narrow, shallow waterways of the Belt Sea and the Sound (Danish Straits), and the Kattegat; it is because of this limited connection that its salinity is low.
October 2026
Fake Ghee from Carrot Extract Can Fool the Raman Test
Read the full article →October 2026
The Rare Gene of Red Hair: CCMB's MC1R Study and Indian Genetic Diversity
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. On the basis of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The c.872C>A variant was found in the girl in homozygous form.
Statement 2: The inheritance of this trait is autosomal dominant.
Statement 3: Both parents were carriers of one copy each and their hair was normal black.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All three
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 2 is wrong: the autosomal recessive pattern was proved by segregation analysis; the heterozygous parents' hair was black.
2. In the examination of 11,021 individuals (91 communities), how many new or ultra-rare variants in total were found in MC1R's coding region?
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 21
(d) 277
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) 21. A total of 21 - 9 new and 12 ultra-rare (18 missense + 3 indel). The 277 are participants of the Bodh (Ladakh) skin-colour study; the 9,772 GenomeIndia genomes and 1,249 laboratory samples make the total 11,021.
3. Which statement about MC1R c.-226A>T (rs3212363) is correct?
(a) This variant is the cause of the Indian girl's red hair
(b) In the Bodh (Ladakh) study, TT homozygotes were found on average 8.46 melanin units lighter than AA
(c) Its T allele is at the highest frequency in the European population
(d) In the luciferase assay it increased MC1R's expression
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The cause of the red hair is c.872C>A; the T allele is highest in East Asians (Japanese 0.80) and lowest in Europeans (0.26); in the luciferase assay expression fell, not rose.
October 2026
Excess Deaths from Heatwaves in India (Model Estimate): One Day ~3,400, Five Days ~30,000
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. On the basis of the research paper's abstract, consider the following statements:
1. A single day of extreme heat causes about 3,400 excess deaths in India.
2. A five-day heatwave causes about 3 lakh excess deaths.
3. The study adopted risk coefficients based on the Koppen-Geiger climate classification.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b) only two. Statements 1 and 3 are in the abstract. The estimate of a five-day heatwave is about 30,000, not 3 lakh - statement 2 is wrong.
2. According to the study, how many excess deaths are estimated in Uttar Pradesh alone in a five-day heatwave?
(a) About 3,400
(b) About 8,100
(c) About 30,000
(d) About 81,000
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). In both the abstract and the press: Uttar Pradesh alone about 8,100; 3,400 is the one-day and 30,000 the five-day national scenario estimate.
3. What are "excess deaths"?
(a) Only deaths recorded from heatstroke
(b) The difference between total deaths and the deaths expected from historical data
(c) Deaths recorded in hospitals
(d) Only deaths in rural areas
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). Excess deaths are a public-health measure: the total deaths of a period minus the deaths expected on the historical base.
October 2026
Jharia's Underground Coal Fires: Collapse Structures 10 Metres Wide, Higher Emissions
Read the full article →October 2026
Aerosol Pollution Cut Solar Energy: India's 9.6% Loss in 2023 (Nature Sustainability Study)
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Based on the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: In 2023, aerosols cut global PV generation by 5.8% (111 TWh).
Statement 2: In 2023, China's national PV loss was 7.7% - the largest in the world.
Statement 3: The aerosol-driven PV loss in the US was greater than China's.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. The US loss was only 3.1% (less solar-coal co-location) - Statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, by how much did aerosols reduce India's solar generation in 2023?
(a) 3.1%
(b) 5.8%
(c) 7.7%
(d) 9.6%
View answer and explanation
Answer: (d). India 9.6% (~15 TWh); 5.8% is the global and 7.7% China's abstract figure, 3.1% is the US's.
3. Which of the following details is from the press report, not from the research paper's abstract?
(a) Over 2017-2023 the annual loss equalled one-third of the energy of new PV capacity
(b) The first facility-level database of 1.4 lakh solar facilities worldwide
(c) In China the loss fell by 1.4% a year from 2017
(d) Not counting the loss can overestimate the climate benefit
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The detail of the database of 1.4 lakh facilities is in The Hindu; (a), (c) and (d) are in the abstract.
October 2026
Duttaphrynus dhara: New Toad Species from Meghalaya's Khasi Hills, Named After the Khasi Attire
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Based on the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The description of Duttaphrynus dhara is based on a combination of external morphology and mitochondrial 16S rRNA data.
Statement 2: It is the sister clade of a described species from Myanmar's Chin State.
Statement 3: The species is currently known only from its type locality.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are in the abstract. The sister clade is an undescribed lineage from Chin State, not a described species - Statement 2 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, the name "dhara" is associated with what?
(a) The traditional women's attire of the Khasi community
(b) A river of Meghalaya
(c) The researcher who discovered the species
(d) A festival of the Garo community
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). The name honours "dhara", the traditional attire of Khasi women; according to the researchers it reflects the community's cultural identity.
3. According to the abstract, who are the closest known relatives of Duttaphrynus dhara?
(a) D. melanostictus and D. himalayanus
(b) D. stuarti and D. chandai
(c) D. phawngpui and D. crocus
(d) D. parietalis and D. microtympanum
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The abstract names D. stuarti and D. chandai as the closest relatives (16S divergence 4.4-6.7%); D. melanostictus appeared in the press only for a habitat comparison.
October 2026
Interfilum shuklaii: New Western Ghats Alga Named After Astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Based on The Hindu's report, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Interfilum shuklaii is a green alga described from soil samples.
Statement 2: It is the first report of the genus Interfilum from India.
Statement 3: It has been named in honour of a forest scientist from Kerala.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the report. The name honours astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla, not a forest scientist - Statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, from where were the samples of Interfilum shuklaii taken?
(a) Silent Valley National Park
(b) Kumbhavurutty forests, Kollam district
(c) Peechi-Vazhani Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Murlen National Park
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). (a) and (c) are locations of other earthworm discoveries; (d) is in Mizoram (a snake species). This question deliberately tests place-confusion across recent discoveries.
3. According to The Hindu, which identification trait of Interfilum shuklaii has been stated?
(a) A striated mucilage envelope
(b) A non-striated mucilage envelope and mother-cell wall remains forming a dome-like cap
(c) An aquatic habitat
(d) Binucleate cells
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The report says a non-striated envelope; (a) is the reverse. As per the title it is edaphic (soil-dwelling), not (c).
October 2026
Trachischium lalremsangai: A New Worm-Eating Snake Species from Mizoram and Myanmar
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. On the basis of the research paper's abstract, consider the following statements:
1. The holotype of Trachischium lalremsangai is from Murlen National Park in Mizoram.
2. Its paratype is from Myanmar's Chin state.
3. According to the abstract, this species is unrelated to T. reticulata.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. According to the abstract, the new species is related to T. reticulata (but identified as distinct from it), so statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to the abstract, which character is included in the identification key of Trachischium lalremsangai?
(a) 15 dorsal scale rows
(b) 13 dorsal scale rows and two postocular scales
(c) Three anterior temporal scales
(d) Dark-brown to black belly
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The counts of (a) and (c) do not match the abstract; (d), according to the press, is a character of related species, not of this species.
3. Which of the following is from the press report, not from the research paper's abstract?
(a) The species was described from the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot
(b) The name was given in honour of a professor of Mizoram University
(c) The identification is based on morphology and molecular data
(d) The holotype was found near the India-Myanmar border
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The reason for the naming (honour of Prof. Lalremsanga) is in The Hindu's report; (a), (c) and (d) are in the abstract.
October 2026
Euthalia zubeengargi: New Butterfly Species from Arunachal's Basar Named After Zubeen Garg
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Based on the abstract of the research paper on Euthalia zubeengargi, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a new species described from Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 2: It has been placed in the Patala group of the subgenus Limbusa.
Statement 3: Per the abstract, it is not a butterfly of the Nymphalidae family.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. The title itself gives the Nymphalidae family, so Statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, Euthalia zubeengargi is named in whose honour?
(a) Assam's singer-musician Zubeen Garg
(b) Arunachal's Chief Minister
(c) The researcher's teacher
(d) A king of Basar
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). "Basar Duke" is the proposed common name; the scientific name is in honour of Zubeen Garg.
3. Which of the following is from the research paper's abstract, not the press?
(a) A revised key was presented for males of Subtype A2 of the Patala group
(b) Only two male butterflies were recorded
(c) The butterfly was found at 600-750 metres elevation
(d) More than 80 species of this group are in Northeast India
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). (b), (c) and (d) are in The Hindu's report.
October 2026
Three New Rove Beetles of Arunachal Pradesh: Megalopinus arunachalensis, M. mithun and M. micros
Read the full article →October 2026
New Ant-Flies of Delhi and the Western Ghats: Metadon ghorpadei and M. reemeri
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. On the basis of the research paper's abstract about Metadon's new species, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Two new species were described from New Delhi and Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2: This is the first record of Metadon from South India.
Statement 3: According to the abstract, the genus Metadon is found only in India.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 has no basis in the abstract; it only reviews the Indian species.
Question 2. According to the abstract, what was done about Metadon unicolor?
(a) A new combination in Metadon was proposed for Brunetti's species
(b) It was declared a new species
(c) It was declared extinct
(d) It was listed in the IUCN
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The abstract proposes Metadon unicolor (Brunetti) comb. nov.
Question 3. According to The Hindu, what is the speciality of Microdontinae flies?
(a) Their larvae live in ants' nests
(b) They only drink flower nectar
(c) They live in the sea
(d) They suck blood
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The report calls this myrmecophily, which according to the report makes them rare.
October 2026
Lepidocampa sikkimensis, a New Diplura of the Eastern Himalaya: The Soil's Microscopic Hexapod
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. On the basis of the research paper's abstract about Lepidocampa sikkimensis, consider the following statements:
1. It was described from eastern Himalayan regions.
2. The earlier taxonomic work on Indian Diplura was of 1977.
3. According to the abstract, DNA barcodes of L. juradii bengalensis were already present in GenBank.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; according to the abstract, this very study gave this subspecies's DNA barcodes for the first time.
2. According to the abstract, whose COI sequences were the only ones available in GenBank earlier?
(a) Lepidocampa weberi
(b) Lepidocampa sikkimensis
(c) Lepidocampa juradii bengalensis
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the abstract, GenBank had COI sequences of only L. weberi.
3. What kind of creature is Lepidocampa sikkimensis?
(a) A wingless, soil-dwelling microscopic arthropod
(b) A flying insect
(c) An aquatic fish
(d) A herbivorous mammal
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). The press release describes it as a wingless, soil-dwelling microscopic arthropod.
October 2026
Two New Slender-Armed Frogs from Arunachal: Leptobrachium somani and L. mechuka
Read the full article →October 2026
Uttarakhand's New Happy-Face Spider Theridion himalayana: The Spider with 32 Morphs
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. On the basis of the abstract of the research paper on Theridion himalayana, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The species is polymorphic in both sexes.
Statement 2: A difference of about 8.5% was found in the COI gene from the Hawaiian T. grallator.
Statement 3: According to the abstract, the species is found only in the Hawaiian Islands.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; this is a species described from Uttarakhand, distinct from Hawaii's T. grallator.
2. According to the abstract, how many morphs of T. himalayana were recorded from three locations in Uttarakhand?
(a) 32
(b) 3
(c) 8
(d) 85
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The abstract states 32 distinct morphs; 8.5% is the gene difference, not the number of morphs.
3. According to the New Indian Express, how is T. himalayana identified?
(a) By the distinctive structure of the genital organs (the shape of the ducts)
(b) Only by the colour of the back
(c) Only by the size of the web
(d) Only by the altitude
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the appearance is like T. grallator, but it can be identified as distinct by the structure of the genital organs.
October 2026
Meghalaya's New Reed Snake Calamaria garoensis: The Garo Hills Discovery
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. On the basis of the abstract of the research paper on Calamaria garoensis, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It has been found as a sister species of C. mizoramensis.
Statement 2: The p-distance between the two in cytochrome b is 6.3%.
Statement 3: The authors treat this distance as threshold-based decisive proof.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; the abstract calls these values descriptive support.
2. According to the abstract, which mark is included in the identification of Calamaria garoensis?
(a) A broad median black band on the underside of the tail
(b) A long, gradually tapering tail
(c) Shiny wings on the back
(d) A long pointed tail with venom glands
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The abstract states a short, not gradually tapering tail, a blunt tip and a broad median black band under the tail.
3. According to The Hindu, from which area is Calamaria garoensis known so far?
(a) The Oragitok area of West Garo Hills
(b) The whole of northeast India
(c) The Western Ghats
(d) The Andaman Islands
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the species is so far known only from this area, which is a sign of limited distribution.
October 2026
Cyrtodactylus jayadityai: New Bent-Toed Gecko Species from Tripura's Lowlands, Named After a Mentor
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. Based on the abstract of the research paper on Cyrtodactylus jayadityai, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a member of the C. khasiensis group and the sister of C. tripuraensis.
Statement 2: The two differ by 4.7-5.2% in the ND2 gene.
Statement 3: It has been listed as Critically Endangered on the official IUCN Red List.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; in the abstract the authors propose treating it as Data Deficient.
2. Per the abstract, what was done about C. khasiensis in this same study?
(a) Its morphological characters were clarified from topotypical specimens and its distribution extended westwards with molecular data
(b) It was declared a new species
(c) It was treated as a synonym of C. jayadityai
(d) It was stated to be limited to Tripura
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). Per the abstract, additional morphological notes were given on C. khasiensis and its distribution extended westwards with molecular data.
3. According to The Hindu, Cyrtodactylus jayadityai is named in whose honour?
(a) Assam's herpetologist Jayaditya Purkayastha
(b) A former Chief Minister of Tripura
(c) Mizoram University
(d) The village of the discovery site
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). Per the report, the researchers named it in honour of their Assam-based herpetologist mentor.
October 2026
Solanum pandeyi: A New Wild Brinjal from the Andamans
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1. On the basis of the abstract of the paper on Solanum pandeyi, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a new species of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
Statement 2: It is like Solanum lasiocarpum and falls in the Leptostemonum clade.
Statement 3: According to the abstract, its holotype is kept in a national park in the Andamans.How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; according to the data availability statement the holotype is in CAL and the isotype-paratype in PBL.
2. According to the Wiley page, when was the paper on Solanum pandeyi first published?
(a) 30 May 2025
(b) 22 June 2026
(c) 25 September 2026
(d) 1 January 2026
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). 22 June 2026 is the date of The Hindu's news item, not of the paper.
3. According to The Hindu, which statement about Solanum pandeyi is correct?
(a) The Great Andamanese community uses it for food and medicine
(b) It is found only in the mangroves of North Andaman
(c) It is a well-known cultivated brinjal variety
(d) It was named after the discoverer's village
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the Great Andamanese community uses it for food and medicine; the name is in honour of Prof Arun Kumar Pandey.
October 2026
Kani maranjandu: First Record of the Tree-Dwelling Crab from Agumbe
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper on Kani maranjandu, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is its first record from the Central Western Ghats (Agumbe, Karnataka).
Statement 2: It is an extension of about 566 km to the north of the distribution known in Kerala.
Statement 3: It is the first description of a new species.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; this is a new record - the species' original description was in Kumar, Raj & Ng (2017).
2. Which new observation is stated in the abstract of the research paper?
(a) Possible ground-dwelling behaviour, not recorded earlier
(b) Breeding in the sea
(c) Climbing trees only at night
(d) Living in caves
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a). According to the abstract, the authors documented possible ground-dwelling behaviour.
3. According to Asianet Newsable, from which area alone was this crab considered known until now?
(a) Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve, Kerala
(b) Sundarbans, West Bengal
(c) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
(d) Andaman Islands
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a). According to the report, until now it was considered known only from the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve in Kerala.
October 2026
"Two New Bees from Arunachal: Elaphropoda triangulata and Habropoda adi"
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to Elaphropoda triangulata and Habropoda adi, based on the abstract, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Both new species are based on two male specimens from Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 2: Elaphropoda is confined to the Oriental region and has 13 current species.
Statement 3: Both genera are very commonly collected genera.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; the abstract describes both as rarely collected genera.
Question 2. Per The Hindu, on what basis was the name Habropoda adi given?
(a) After Arunachal's Adi community
(b) After the triangular marks on the abdomen
(c) After the discoverer's name
(d) After a river's name
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Per the report, H. adi is named after the Adi community; the triangular marks are the basis of E. triangulata's name.
Question 3. Per The Hindu, which method was used to collect these bees?
(a) Malaise trap
(b) Artificial hive
(c) Night-light net
(d) Drone survey
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Per the report, the specimens were collected with a Malaise trap, a passive method that catches flying insects over a long period.
October 2026
Three New Jumping Spiders of Onomastus: Brahmagiri, Silent Valley and Sri Lanka
Read the full article →October 2026
New Dory Fish Cyttopsis indica: From the Depths of the Arabian Sea
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to Cyttopsis indica, on the basis of the abstract, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a dory fish described on the basis of six samples, found from a depth of 350-500 m.
Statement 2: Its difference from the close species in the COI gene is 4.6-11%.
Statement 3: Its identification happened only from molecular data, not from morphological traits.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; the abstract states COI as a basis along with meristic and morphometric traits.
2. According to the ICAR release, this Indian Ocean fish was until now taken to be which species?
(a) Cyttopsis rosea
(b) Cyttopsis cypho
(c) Ariosoma cmfriense
(d) Parazen pacificus
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to ICAR it was taken to be C. rosea, whose distribution is now limited to the Atlantic.
3. According to The Hindu, the samples of Cyttopsis indica were taken from a trawl catch landed at which place?
(a) Sakthikulangara fishing harbour, Kollam
(b) Visakhapatnam port
(c) Mumbai's Sassoon Dock
(d) Porbandar port
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the report and the ICAR release, the samples were taken from the trawl catch landed at the Sakthikulangara harbour in Kollam.
October 2026
New Begonia Species Begonia rajvikramanii: Rosemala, Kollam (Kerala)
Read the full article →October 2026
Mizoram's Two New Amphibians: Duttaphrynus phawngpui and Ingerana aizawl
Read the full article →October 2026
Gegeneophis chandgadi: Maharashtra's New Caecilian
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to Gegeneophis chandgadi, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a new species of legless amphibian (caecilian).
Statement 2: According to the abstract, it has both primary and secondary annuli.
Statement 3: According to the ZSI statement, it was found only inside protected forests.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong; according to the ZSI statement in The Hindu, the species was found in a landscape of human settlements, housing and farmland.
2. To which class of animals do caecilians belong?
(a) Amphibians (Amphibia)
(b) Reptiles (Reptilia)
(c) Annelids (the earthworm class)
(d) Fishes (Pisces)
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The title of the research paper places it in Amphibia: Gymnophiona.
3. According to the molecular analysis, the new species is a close sister species of which of the following?
(a) Gegeneophis mhadeiensis and an unknown lineage from Amboli
(b) Ichthyophis and Uraeotyphlus
(c) Rhacophorus and Hylarana
(d) Nyctibatrachus and Micrixalus
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to the abstract, the new species shows a close relationship with the unknown Amboli lineage and G. mhadeiensis.
October 2026
Lestes paloti: A New Damselfly from the Western Ghats
Read the full article →October 2026
Coimbatore, 9 July 2026: The NTCA's 29th and SC-NBWL's 91st Meetings
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to the meetings of 9 July 2026, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: STRIDES 2026 was released in the NTCA's 29th meeting.
Statement 2: Both meetings were held at CASFOS, Coimbatore.
Statement 3: According to the press release, the SC-NBWL gave final approval to including the pygmy hog in the Species Recovery Programme.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong, because according to PIB the issue of including the pygmy hog remained under "discussion"; there is no mention of final approval.
2. What is the "Roadmap to Rescue" related to?
(a) Interim facilities for the rescue, rehabilitation and release of wild animals in tiger landscapes
(b) The enumeration of Ganges dolphins
(c) Mangrove planting in coastal areas
(d) The ringing of migratory birds
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to PIB, it is a strategic roadmap of interim or transit facilities for rescue-rehab-release.
3. On which species were scientific publications released in the SC-NBWL's 91st meeting?
(a) Rhinoceros, sloth bear and Great Indian Bustard
(b) Snow leopard, gharial and Nilgiri tahr
(c) Asiatic lion, turtle and red panda
(d) Ganges dolphin, dugong and olive ridley
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to PIB, publications on the rhinoceros, the sloth bear and the Great Indian Bustard were released.
October 2026
Pygmy Grasshoppers of the Kole Wetlands: Recorded for the First Time in the State
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to the study of pygmy grasshoppers of the Kole wetlands (Journal of Orthoptera Research), consider the following statements:
1. The survey found 12 morphospecies across 8 genera.
2. The genera Tetrix and Thoradonta were recorded from Kerala for the first time.
3. The research paper's abstract says that all twelve species are new to science.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is not in the abstract; the abstract only mentions 12 morphospecies and two genera being recorded in the state for the first time.
2. Pygmy grasshoppers belong to which insect family?
(a) Tetrigidae
(b) Apidae
(c) Culicidae
(d) Formicidae
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). The research paper's title places pygmy grasshoppers in the family Tetrigidae of the order Orthoptera.
3. What year is recorded as the designation date of Kerala's "Vembanad-Kol Wetland" in the Ramsar Sites Information Service (RSIS)?
(a) 1982
(b) 1990
(c) 2002
(d) 2022
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). RSIS records site number 1214, designation date 19 August 2002, and area 1,51,250 hectares.
October 2026
Patna Bird Sanctuary and Chhari-Dhand: India's 98 Ramsar Sites in January 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Kerivoula titania: Woolly Bat Recorded for the First Time in India
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to Kerivoula titania, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: This is the first documented record of this species within India's boundary.
Statement 2: In this report it has been described as a new species.
Statement 3: With this record, the number of bat species in India has become 137.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. This is not a new species, but the first record in the country.
Question 2. According to the news report, in which areas was this bat known before India?
(a) Only the Western Ghats
(b) Africa's rainforests
(c) Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam and China's Yunnan
(d) Sri Lanka and the Maldives
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). These are the areas stated in NE Now's report.
Question 3. According to the research paper's abstract, which data were used to confirm the identification?
(a) Morphology, baculum, mtDNA, echolocation calls and wing structure
(b) Only satellite tracking
(c) Only camera-trap images
(d) Only local people's information
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). These are the data listed in the abstract.
October 2026
LRLACM Flight Test: DRDO's Long-Range Cruise Missile
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
1. With reference to the flight test of LRLACM, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: This test was conducted from Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island on 15 June 2026.
Statement 2: ADE, Bengaluru is its nodal laboratory.
Statement 3: The induction of the missile into the services was announced with this test.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The PIB release contains no announcement of induction.
2. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) ADE, Bengaluru: Tracking instruments for test data
(b) ITR, Chandipur: Nodal laboratory
(c) ITR, Chandipur: Tracking instruments that provided test data
(d) Indian Air Force: Nodal laboratory of the project
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). ADE is the nodal laboratory, and data from ITR Chandipur's instruments confirmed that the objectives were met.
3. Which statement about LRLACM is correct?
(a) Its sub-systems have been developed by DRDO laboratories and Indian industry partners
(b) Its strike range has been announced as 1000 km
(c) Only the Army was among the user representatives
(d) Its test took place in Rajasthan
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The release does not give the strike range, the user representatives were from the Navy and the Air Force, and the test took place off the Odisha coast.
October 2026
Aarogya Setu 2.0: From Pandemic App to Digital Health Gateway
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to Aarogya Setu 2.0, consider the following statements:
1. According to PIB, after the pandemic MeitY handed the app over to the National Health Authority.
2. It has been recast as a Personal Health Record app in line with the vision of ABDM.
3. It is a new insurance scheme meant to take the place of PM-JAY.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The app has features such as the PM-JAY wallet and hospital search, but it is not an insurance scheme.
Question 2. Which statement about the "My Consent" feature of Aarogya Setu 2.0 is correct?
(a) It shares health data without the user's approval
(b) It lets the user view and control permissions for sharing health information
(c) It is only for hospitals
(d) It only gives information about blood donation
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to PIB, information is shared only with the user's approval and the status of consents is tracked.
Question 3. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) ABHA: the new name of Aarogya Setu 2.0
(b) e-RaktKosh: the source for checking blood-unit availability in the app
(c) NHA: the ministry that developed the app
(d) PM-JAY wallet: a company portal for private insurance
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). ABHA is a foundational element of ABDM, NHA is the app's new custodian institution (MeitY is the ministry that handed it over), and the PM-JAY wallet shows coverage information.
October 2026
OIML and the 61st CIML Meeting: New Delhi, 26-28 October 2026
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to the OIML, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is an intergovernmental treaty-based organisation.
Statement 2: It prepares model rules and documents for legal metrology.
Statement 3: Its International Recommendations are legally binding on member countries.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. According to the OIML, member countries are morally obliged to implement the Recommendations as far as possible.
Question 2. Which statement is correct about the 61st CIML meeting?
(a) It has already been held in New Delhi in 2025
(b) It is scheduled in New Delhi from 26 to 28 October 2026
(c) It is to be held in Paris
(d) There is no seminar or workshop along with it
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). As per the invitation, the meeting is in New Delhi from 26 to 28 October 2026, with a CEEMS seminar and a strategic workshop alongside.
Question 3. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) OIML: the 61st meeting of the committee
(b) CIML: the name of the intergovernmental treaty-based organisation
(c) International Recommendations: model rules for measuring instruments
(d) International Documents: legally binding orders
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). The OIML is the organisation, the CIML is its committee, and International Documents are for guidance.
October 2026
Swavlamban 2026: The Navy's Innovation and Indigenisation Seminar
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to Swavlamban 2026, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is the Indian Navy's innovation and indigenisation seminar.
Statement 2: It is to be held on 26 and 27 October 2026 in New Delhi.
Statement 3: It is a joint military exercise of India and Australia.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Swavlamban is an innovation seminar, not a military exercise.
Question 2. What happened regarding Swavlamban on 19 October 2026?
(a) The fifth seminar concluded
(b) The seminar's inaugural address was delivered
(c) A curtain-raiser press conference for the fifth edition was held
(d) All the displayed systems were inducted into the Navy
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). As per PIB, a curtain-raiser press conference was held on 19 October. The seminar is to be held on 26-27 October.
Question 3. Which of the following statements correctly follows from the PIB release?
(a) The Swavlamban 5.0 document is to be released at the seminar
(b) The seminar is confined to government laboratories only
(c) Investors have no role in the seminar
(d) This seminar is being held for the first time
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a). This is the fifth edition, industry, startups and investors are part of it, and the Swavlamban 5.0 document is to be released.
October 2026
Upgraded Agri Welfare Portal: A Single Window for Farmers
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to the upgraded Agri Welfare Portal, consider the following statements:
1. It was formally launched on 19 October 2026.
2. It is a platform giving single-window access to PM-KISAN, AgriStack and PMFBY.
3. With its launch, all farmers have automatically started receiving financial assistance.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The portal is a means of access. The benefit continues to depend on the eligibility of the scheme concerned.
Question 2. Which feature of the portal is mentioned in the PIB press release?
(a) Designed only for large cities
(b) Lightweight, works on weak internet and supports screen readers
(c) Available only in English
(d) Limited to FPOs only
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (b). According to PIB, the portal is lightweight, runs on weak connectivity and supports screen readers for persons with disabilities.
Question 3. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The training campaign through KVKs has been completed
(b) The portal will also connect FPOs, PACS, scientists and startups
(c) The PIB release gives the number of farmers who benefited from the portal
(d) The portal is itself a crop insurance scheme
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (b). The KVK campaign is to be run later, no beneficiary count has been given, and PMFBY is a separate scheme.
October 2026
Pumped Storage Hydropower: The Water Battery for Electricity
Read the full article →October 2026
Haplothismia: A Rare Plant Dependent on Fungi
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Check the statements:
With reference to Haplothismia exannulata:
Statement 1: It is a flowering plant of the family Burmanniaceae.
Statement 2: In fully fungus-dependent nutrition, carbon is obtained through a fungus.
Statement 3: A monotypic genus means that only one living plant of it exists on Earth.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. The first two statements are correct. The third is wrong: a monotypic genus has one accepted species under it; this does not state the number of living plants.
Question 2. Identify the correct pair:
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Parambikulam Tiger Reserve - Eastern Himalaya, Arunachal Pradesh
(b) The research paper on Haplothismia's rediscovery - first publication in 2026
(c) Haplothismia - a genus with one accepted species in Kew's record
(d) Fully fungus-dependent nutrition - direct decomposition of the soil's dead matter by the plant
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). Kew's genus record shows one accepted species. Parambikulam is in Kerala's Western Ghats. The rediscovery paper was published in 2000. In fungus-dependent nutrition the carbon pathway is through a fungus, not direct decomposition.
Question 3. The relationship of the two statements:
Statement-I: The presence of fungus-dependent nutrition in a plant does not by itself make it a fungus.
Statement-II: A nutritional relationship and taxonomic identity are not the same thing; Kew places Haplothismia among the flowering plants.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both statements are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
(b) Both statements are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is wrong
(d) Statement-I is wrong, but Statement-II is correct
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The fungus is a participant in the relationship of obtaining food. Despite this dependence, Haplothismia's identity is that of a flowering plant. The second statement clarifies exactly this difference.
October 2026
A Pair of White Dwarfs: X-ray Signals and Gravitational Waves
Read the full article →October 2026
Coffees of Nagaland: Rs 175 Crore Value Chain Mission, Two Pilot Clusters, and Arabica-Robusta Basics
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Both arabica and robusta are associated with the genus Coffea.
Statement 2: In the Coffee Board's general table, the suitable temperature ranges of the two share some portion.
Statement 3: In India, coffee is grown only in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. The first two are correct. The third is wrong: these are the traditional regions, but coffee is grown in the Eastern Ghats and the Northeast too.
Question 2. With reference to the Nagaland mission:
Consider the following pairs:
Pair 1: Tuophema, Kohima - arabica
Pair 2: Ghotovi, Niuland - robusta
Pair 3: the mission's launch - automatic GI registration for every coffee of the stateWhich pairs are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). The first two are the pilot clusters stated by PIB. The third is wrong: a scheme having GI tagging as an aim is not proof of every product getting automatic registration.
Question 3. Which statement is correct?
(a) The Coffee Board was created only for Nagaland's 2026 mission
(b) Other crops simply cannot be grown in shade-grown coffee cultivation
(c) The Coffee Board is a statutory body created under the Coffee Act, 1942
(d) Continuously increasing the amount of shade increases production in every condition
Answer and reason
Answer: (c). The Board is a statutory body linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Multi-crop cultivation is possible in a shade system, but proper management of shade is necessary; maximum shade cannot be taken as the rule for maximum production.
October 2026
Fireflies: Bioluminescence and India's Species Checklist
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the statements:
1. Fireflies are beetles of the Lampyridae family.
2. A region's species checklist tells the total number of living individuals present there.
3. In the firefly's light production, luciferase plays the role of an enzyme.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. The first and third statements are correct. The second is wrong: a checklist is a list of species records, not a census of living individuals.
Question 2. Identify the correct relationship:
Which of the following relationships is correct?
(a) Luciferase - a helping enzyme in the firefly's reaction
(b) Bioluminescence - reflection of light by a mirror
(c) Endemic species - necessarily a globally extinct species
(d) A checklist of 92 species - 92 new species discovered in March 2026
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Luciferase is an enzyme. Bioluminescence is light production from a chemical reaction in the body. Endemism tells of distribution. A checklist is a record prepared from old literature, not the number of new discoveries in one month.
Question 3. Check the relationship of the statements:
Statement-I: Excessive artificial light at night can affect the reproductive communication of some firefly species.
Statement-II: In species that find mates through light signals, outside light can cover natural signals.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both statements are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is wrong
(c) Statement-I is wrong, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Both statements are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). The covering of natural light signals by artificial light explains the route of hindrance in finding mates. It is not right to assume this effect to be the same across all species.
October 2026
Dicliptera pakhalica: A New Plant Species from Pakhal Wildlife Sanctuary
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
1. Dicliptera pakhalica has been described as a new species from Telangana's Pakhal Wildlife Sanctuary.
2. This species belongs to the Acanthaceae family.
3. In the IUCN, Data Deficient means being critically endangered.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Data Deficient is not a category of threat; it indicates a lack of information.
Question 2. With reference to the Pakhal Wildlife Sanctuary:
1. It is named after Pakhal Lake.
2. According to the gazette notification, it falls in the 6B bio-geographic zone, that is the central plateau of the Deccan peninsula.
3. It is located in the Himalayan bio-geographic zone.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the gazette notification. The notification places it in the Deccan peninsula, not in the Himalayan zone.
Question 3. Which conclusion is proper?
(a) As soon as a new species is described, it is declared critically endangered
(b) Being known so far from only one place means it is proven permanently endemic
(c) Data Deficient means it is proven safe
(d) In Data Deficient, a lack of adequate information for assessing endangerment is accepted; it is not a category of threat
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). Under the IUCN guidelines, Data Deficient carries a lack of adequate data. It is neither proof of being safe nor a declaration of being threatened.
October 2026
GOBARdhan: Central Sector Scheme for the Compressed Biogas (CBG) Sector
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Question 1. Which statement about the framework of the GOBARdhan scheme is correct?
(a) It is a State scheme of only five States
(b) It is only a two-year pilot project started in 2018
(c) It is a loan scheme only for pipeline construction
(d) It is a ₹23,731-crore central sector scheme approved by the Cabinet on 6 August 2026, which provides a ten-year framework for the CBG sector from FY 2026-27 to FY 2035-36
View answer and explanation
Answer: (d). According to PIB (1 October 2026), the scheme was Cabinet-approved on 6 August 2026; a framework from FY 2026-27 to FY 2035-36 with a cost of ₹23,731 crore.
Question 2. Under the CBG Obligation (CBO), on whom and how much is the purchase obligation?
(a) A 50% obligation on farmers to sell crop residue
(b) 10% mandatory purchase on State governments
(c) A 1% obligation only on private refineries
(d) On CGD entities - 3% in FY 2026-27, 4% in FY 2027-28 and 5% from FY 2028-29 (in the CNG-transport and PNG-domestic segments)
View answer and explanation
Answer: (d). According to PIB (1 October 2026), under the CBO the CBG purchase obligation on CGD entities is 3% (FY27), 4% (FY28) and 5% (from FY29).
Question 3. Which two supporting tools were launched along with GOBARdhan on 1 October 2026?
(a) National Biogas Register and Carbon Credit Exchange
(b) Only a mobile app
(c) State-wise CBG policy documents
(d) GOBARdhan Handbook and the Unified GOBARdhan Portal
View answer and explanation
Answer: (d). According to PIB (1 October 2026), the GOBARdhan Handbook and the Unified GOBARdhan Portal were launched along with the launch.
October 2026
CCUS: India's First Integrated Field Laboratory at IIT Bombay
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Question 1. Which statement is correct about the facility inaugurated at IIT Bombay on 11 May 2026?
(a) It is India's first laboratory that will work only on solar-energy storage
(b) It is India's first integrated CCUS field laboratory - indigenous carbon capture, utilisation and permanent geological storage at a single site
(c) It is the country's first semiconductor manufacturing unit
(d) It is India's first nuclear research laboratory
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). According to PIB (11 May 2026), this is India's first end-to-end (integrated) CCUS field lab, with a closed-loop coordination of capture, utilisation and geological storage.
Question 2. What does CCUS mean?
(a) Carbon Credit and Usage System
(b) Clean Coal Usage Standard
(c) Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage - capturing CO2 and putting it to use or into permanent geological storage
(d) Cyber Security Certification Unit
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). CCUS = Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage; the PIB release (11 May 2026) describes exactly this capture-utilisation-geological-storage chain.
Question 3. Which institution is scaling up this CCUS technology?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(b) Space Applications Centre, Sriharikota
(c) National Thermal Power Corporation
(d) UrjanovaC - a deep-tech venture incubated at IIT Bombay's SINE (founders: Prof. Vikram Vishal and Prof. Arnab Dutta)
View answer and explanation
Answer: (d). According to PIB (11 May 2026), the scale-up is being done by UrjanovaC - an incubated venture of SINE (IIT Bombay), founded by Prof. Vikram Vishal and Prof. Arnab Dutta.
October 2026
Amolops kamal: New Cascade Frog Species Discovered in Nagaland
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Question 1. Which statement about Amolops kamal is correct?
(a) It is a new fish species found in the Western Ghats of Kerala
(b) It is a new reptile found in the Andamans
(c) It is a revision of an already known Himalayan species
(d) It is a new species of cascade frog recorded from Kiphire district of Nagaland; the study was published by ZSI scientists in the Records of the ZSI
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). According to The Hindu (30 May 2026), a six-member ZSI team recorded it in August 2024 in Kiphire district (near Singrep village); the study was published in the Records of the ZSI.
Question 2. On what basis was the species named "kamal"?
(a) Because of the frog's lotus-like colour
(b) After a mountain in Kiphire
(c) In honour of Kamal Choudhury, the lead author's teacher; the common name is Nagaland Cascade Frog
(d) After the ZSI Director
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). According to The Hindu (30 May 2026), the name honours Kamal Choudhury (B. Barooah College, Guwahati), the teacher of lead author Bhaskar Saikia; the common name is Nagaland Cascade Frog.
Question 3. According to The Hindu report, which figure about the genus Amolops is correct?
(a) About 90 valid species worldwide; 20 recorded from India
(b) 20 species worldwide; 90 in India
(c) 90 species confined to India alone
(d) The genus has only 3 species
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to The Hindu (30 May 2026), Amolops has about 90 recognised species worldwide, of which 20 are recorded from India.
October 2026
MILAN 2026: Multilateral Naval Exercise in Visakhapatnam
Read the full article →October 2026
Takydromus ultapaniensis: A New Grass Lizard Species from Assam
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which statement is correct about Takydromus ultapaniensis?
(a) It is a fish found in the mountain streams of the Western Ghats
(b) It is a new grasshopper species described in Current Science
(c) It is a new grass lizard species described from Ultapani (Manas landscape) in Assam's Kokrajhar district, whose account was published in Zootaxa (3 March 2026)
(d) It is a common species found in Arunachal Pradesh that already has a wide range
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). As per Zootaxa (3 March 2026), this new grass lizard was described from Ultapani, Kokrajhar (Assam); it is not a fish/grasshopper and is so far limited to a single forest range.
Question 2. On what basis was the new species confirmed?
(a) Only from photographs
(b) From distinctive morphological traits and genetic difference in the mitochondrial 12S rRNA and COI genes
(c) Only from local folk knowledge
(d) Only from a comparison of habitats
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). As per Zootaxa's abstract, the description is based on both morphological traits and notable genetic difference in the mitochondrial genes (12S rRNA, COI).
Question 3. Choose the correct statement about this species' habitat:
(a) It lives mainly in montane and subtropical forests
(b) It is found in dry scrub desert areas
(c) It has been recorded only in tea gardens
(d) It lives in lowland plain semi-evergreen forests, among waterlogged grasslands and fern patches
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d). As per NorthEast Now (March 2026), unlike its montane relatives, T. ultapaniensis belongs to the plain semi-evergreen forests with waterlogged grasslands and fern patches.
October 2026
Karbi Anglong Ginger: First GI-Tagged Export Consignment to London
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which statement about the March 2026 Karbi Anglong ginger event is correct?
(a) The ginger got a GI tag for the first time in March 2026
(b) The first London-bound export consignment of GI-certified Karbi Anglong ginger was flagged off in Guwahati on 2 March 2026; the GI tag is of 2015
(c) This consignment was sent to China
(d) This was only a proposed export agreement; no consignment went
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). According to NorthEast News (2 March 2026), the first London consignment was flagged off; the registration in the GI Registry is of 2015 (certificate 25 March 2015) - the two dates are separate facts.
Question 2. Which institutions played a role in facilitating this export?
(a) Only the Ministry of Railways
(b) APEDA and Nexton Foods (with the cooperation of the Agriculture Department and the farmers)
(c) Only FCI
(d) NABARD and SIDBI
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). According to NorthEast News, APEDA and Nexton Foods Private Limited facilitated this export with the cooperation of the farmers and the Agriculture Department.
Question 3. Choose the correct interpretation about the quantity of the consignment:
(a) All sources agree on 21.2 metric tonnes
(b) All sources agree on 1.2 metric tonnes
(c) The minister's post says 21.2 metric tonnes and according to the APEDA General Manager it is a 1.2 metric tonne trial consignment - two different source figures
(d) No source mentions the quantity
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). The source figures differ: the Agriculture Minister's post says 21.2 metric tonnes; the CM's post (Assam Tribune) and the APEDA GM both say 1.2 metric tonnes - so the figure should be read with its source.
October 2026
Amblyceps vayavy: A New Catfish from the Northern Western Ghats
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Question 1. From where was Amblyceps vayavy described?
(a) From the Brahmaputra system of Arunachal Pradesh
(b) From the northern Western Ghats: the Kundalika river of Maharashtra and the Ragada river of Goa
(c) From the Pamba river of Kerala
(d) From the Narmada river of Madhya Pradesh
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to Mongabay-India (18 May 2026), the species has so far been recorded only from the Kundalika (Maharashtra) and Ragada (Goa) rivers; the description was published in Zootaxa (11 March 2026).
Question 2. What does the name "vayavy" mean?
(a) Fast swimmer
(b) Hill stream
(c) Fish-catcher
(d) North-west
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). According to Mongabay, "vayavy" conveys "north-west" in both Marathi and Konkani, a reference to the species' northern Western Ghats distribution.
Question 3. Choose the correct statement about the distribution of the genus Amblyceps in the Western Ghats:
(a) A. vayavy is the genus's second known species from the Western Ghats; the first was A. accari (2016)
(b) This genus is found only in the Western Ghats
(c) This is the genus's very first species from the Western Ghats
(d) A. vayavy was described in 2016
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to Mongabay, A. accari (2016) was known from the Western Ghats earlier, so A. vayavy is the second Amblyceps species there; the genus's 24 species are spread across South and South-East Asia.
October 2026
First Official Documentation of the Smooth-Coated Otter in Nandhaur
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Question 1. Which statement about Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary is correct?
(a) It is located only in Nainital district
(b) It is part of the Terai Arc Landscape and links Corbett-Rajaji to Pilibhit-Dudhwa/the Nepal Terai
(c) It was notified in the year 2002
(d) It is notified as a national park
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the Uttarakhand Forest Department's official page, Nandhaur (269.956 sq km, notification 14 December 2012) is the corridor in the Terai Arc Landscape linking Corbett-Rajaji to Pilibhit-Dudhwa/Nepal; it extends to Champawat and Udham Singh Nagar along with Nainital.
Question 2. Choose the correct difference between the February 2026 event and the August 2025 record:
(a) Both are different reportings of the same event
(b) The August 2025 record proved false
(c) An otter was seen for the first time in February 2026
(d) The first photographic scientific proof was published in JoTT in August 2025; in February 2026 the Forest Department for the first time officially video-documented a group
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). JoTT (26 August 2025) gave the first photographic proof, while according to the New Indian Express (19 February 2026) the Forest Department did the first official video documentation - the two are separate achievements.
Question 3. Choose the correct statement about the conservation status of the smooth-coated otter:
(a) It is Vulnerable in the IUCN list, in Schedule-I of the WPA 1972, and listed in CITES Appendix-I (2019)
(b) It is Critically Endangered in the IUCN list and in CITES Appendix-II
(c) It is in Schedule-II of the WPA
(d) It is not listed in CITES
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to India Code's current act text (Schedule-I, Part-A, serial 105, effective from the 2022 amendment), it is in Schedule-I of the WPA; Vulnerable in the IUCN list per the NIE report; and transferred to Appendix-I at CoP18 (2019) per the CITES record.
October 2026
Zero Coupon Zero Principal: CSR Through the Social Stock Exchange
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Through which new route did the May 2026 amendment make CSR possible?
(a) Direct investment in foreign partnerships
(b) Employee bonus distribution
(c) Subscription to ZCZP on the Social Stock Exchange
(d) Share buyback
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). PIB: new item (xiii) in Schedule VII: subscription to zero coupon zero principal instruments on the SSE.
Question 2. Choose the correct statements about ZCZP:
1. Both interest and principal are repaid on it.
2. It is issued only in demat form.
3. It is not transferable from the original holder until the tenure is complete.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). SEBI master circular: demat-only, non-transferable for the tenure; no interest/principal repayment.
Question 3. What is the maximum limit on spending in ZCZP through the CSR route?
(a) 5% of total CSR spending
(b) 25% of total CSR spending
(c) No limit
(d) 10% of total CSR spending
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). PIB: a maximum of ten per cent of total CSR spending for that financial year.
October 2026
Rare Blue-and-White Flycatcher Sighted on Gujarat's Pavagadh Hill
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Question 1. Which statement is correct about the sighting recorded on Pavagadh in March 2026?
(a) The bird was seen by tourists at night
(b) A forest department team saw and recorded the male during seed collection
(c) This species comes regularly on India's normal migration route
(d) This is the first record of this species in India
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). TOI report: the forest team recorded the sighting on 8 March; India is off the route, with about 149 earlier records.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
1. It breeds in Japan, Korea and the Russian Far East.
2. It spends the winter in Southeast Asia.
3. Its IUCN status is Critically Endangered.
(a) Only 2 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). Both the breeding and wintering ranges are correct; the status is Least Concern, not Endangered.
Question 3. What are the family and another name of the blue-and-white flycatcher?
(a) Cycidae; king vulture
(b) Accipitridae; hawk
(c) Coraciidae; Indian roller
(d) Muscicapidae; Japanese flycatcher
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). Family Muscicapidae; it is also called the Japanese flycatcher.
October 2026
Tigidia singhal: The Trapdoor Spider of the Deccan Grasslands
Read the full article →October 2026
"New Marine Species: Lakshadweep's Porcelain Crab and the Bay of Bengal's Eel"
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which is the correct location of Pachycheles ravichandrani?
(a) Dal Lake
(b) Chilika's freshwater part
(c) Sundarbans' terrestrial forest
(d) The coral reef of Agatti island, Lakshadweep
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). Per ICAR, the roughly 3 mm crab was found in Agatti's coral reef.
Question 2. Consider the pairs given below:
Pair 1: Pachycheles ravichandrani - porcelain crab
Pair 2: Bascanichthys chepakakiensis - snake eel
Which pairs are correct?
(a) Both
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Neither
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Both are correctly matched in the ICAR account.
Question 3. Per the ICAR account, which evidence was used in the eel's species determination?
(a) Only the local name
(b) Only the sea's temperature
(c) Morphological examination and molecular analysis
(d) Only the count of fishers
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). The account mentions both morphology and molecular analysis.
October 2026
Codex: Food Standards and the Decisions of CAC49
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Question 1. The Codex Alimentarius Commission is a joint initiative of whom?
(a) WTO and IMF
(b) UNESCO and UNICEF
(c) FAO and WHO
(d) ILO and UNDP
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). The WHO describes the Commission as a joint initiative of FAO and WHO.
Question 2. Statement-I: CAC49 adopted seven India-led standards/guidelines.
Statement-II: All these seven were standards only for spices.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Both correct
(b) Only I correct
(c) Only II correct
(d) Both wrong
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). The seven texts also included texts related to water, chicken hygiene and labelling.
Question 3. What was the decision on cashew kernels at CAC49?
(a) A final global standard was adopted
(b) A ban was placed on the cashew trade
(c) New work to develop a standard was approved
(d) Cashew was removed from the food list
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). According to PIB, the proposal to start new work was approved, not a final standard.
October 2026
White Rabbit: The Secure Dissemination of Indian Standard Time
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Question 1. What are the location and technology of the White Rabbit demonstration network commissioned in July 2026?
(a) Chennai; only ordinary radio broadcasting
(b) RRSL Bengaluru; PTP-based White Rabbit
(c) Mumbai; a new Indian time zone
(d) New Delhi; weather-satellite service
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). PIB: RRSL Bengaluru, PTP-based White Rabbit network.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The network disseminates IST traceable to UTC (NPLI).
Statement 2: The release announces the completion of rollout on every device in the country.
Choose the correct statement.
(a) Only 2
(b) Both
(c) Neither
(d) Only 1
See the answer and reason
Answer: (d). 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect. The source calls it a demonstration network.
Question 3. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(a) RRSL Bengaluru-NSE Chennai: verification of secure IST dissemination
(b) White Rabbit: a new national calendar
(c) PTP: a food-safety standard
(d) UTC (NPLI): the name of a satellite
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). PIB mentions the completion of the verification of time dissemination between Bengaluru and Chennai.
November 2026
Shigellosis: Outbreak in Kerala and Biological Identification
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to shigellosis:
Statement 1: It is an intestinal infection caused by a bacterium called Shigella.
Statement 2: Apart from contaminated food or water, it can also spread from person to person.
Statement 3: The main function of ORS is to destroy the bacteria directly from the body.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: the causative agent of shigellosis is the Shigella bacterium, not a virus.
Statement 2 is correct: hands, water, food, objects and surfaces contaminated by faeces can play a role in transmission.
Statement 3 is incorrect: ORS helps make up the loss of water and salts; it is not a medicine that directly destroys bacteria.
Question 2. After a mass feast, several people show symptoms of diarrhoea. Which of the following conclusions is the most appropriate?
(a) Every person with symptoms should be considered a confirmed case of shigella
(b) The infection and its possible source should be identified through the examination of shared exposures and laboratory testing
(c) All outbreaks of diarrhoea are spread by mosquitoes
(d) Without testing the drinking water, a single dish should be declared the cause of all cases
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
Finding a link with the same event is a basis for investigation, not proof of the final cause. Diarrhoea can occur in many diseases. Confirmed cases and the possible source of infection are identified through disease surveillance, scrutiny of shared exposures and testing of appropriate samples.
October 2026
Masroor Rock-Cut Temple: Himachal's Monolithic Temple Complex
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Question 1. The Masroor Rock-Cut Temple complex is located in which state/district?
(a) Himachal Pradesh, Kangra
(b) Uttarakhand, Almora
(c) Jammu and Kashmir, Jammu
(d) Punjab, Hoshiarpur
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Kangra portal: the Masroor Temple is in Kangra district, Himachal Pradesh.
Question 2. Consider the pairs given below about the Masroor Temple:
Pair 1: Period - 8th century
Pair 2: Style - Nagara
Pair 3: Method - monolithic carving
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). Kangra portal: all three pairs are correct.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Masroor complex is a Nagara-style temple group made by carving a single rock.
Statement-II: The construction of the Masroor complex was fully completed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(b) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is wrong - the complex remained incomplete.
October 2026
114th Session of the International Labour Conference: A New Convention on the Platform Economy
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Question 1. What is the correct identification of the ILC's 114th session (2026)?
(a) A tripartite labour conference of 1-12 June 2026 in Geneva
(b) A special session of the UNGA in New York
(c) An annual review of the Geneva Convention
(d) A ministerial conference of the WTO
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). ILO: the 114th session, 1-12 June 2026, Palais des Nations (Geneva); tripartite government-employer-worker participation.
Question 2. Consider the pairs given below about ILC 114:
Pair 1: Member states - 187
Pair 2: New convention - decent work in the platform economy
Pair 3: Distinction - the sector's first international labour standard
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). ILO page: all three pairs are correct.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: ILC 114 adopted a new convention on the platform economy.
Statement-II: The adoption of a convention means that all 187 member states have ratified it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(b) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is wrong - adoption is a decision of the session; ratification is a separate process of each member, which the source does not claim.
October 2026
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): Doha Annual Meeting 2026
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. What is AIIB's headquarters and the year operations began?
(a) Shanghai; 2015
(b) Beijing; 2016
(c) Doha; 2020
(d) Manila; 1966
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). AIIB: operations began in Beijing in 2016; Manila is ADB's headquarters - avoid the confusion.
Question 2. Consider the following pairs about AIIB:
Pair 1: Founding members - 57
Pair 2: Authorized capital - USD 100 billion
Pair 3: UN permanent observer status - 2018
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See the answer and reason
Answer: (c). AIIB About page: all three are correct - 57 founding members, USD 100 billion capital, UNGA/ECOSOC permanent observer in 2018.
Question 3. Assertion (A): The 2026 Doha Annual Meeting is of special significance for AIIB.
Reason (R): It marked the bank's entry into its second decade.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct, R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect, R is correct
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). AIIB: the 2026 meeting marked entry into the "second decade" - R explains A.
October 2026
GRAPES-3: Ooty's Cosmic-Ray Observatory and Its Upgrade
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Question 1. Where is the GRAPES-3 observatory located, and at what altitude?
(a) Ladakh, ~4,500 metres
(b) Ooty, ~2,200 metres
(c) Kodaikanal, ~2,000 metres
(d) Pune, ~560 metres
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to TIFR, GRAPES-3 is at Ooty (Tamil Nadu) at an altitude of about 2,200 metres.
Question 2. Consider the following statements about GRAPES-3:
Statement 1: It studies cosmic rays by measuring extensive air showers.
Statement 2: It has a large-area muon detector.
Statement 3: It studies only solar events, not cosmic rays.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). TIFR: it has both extensive air-shower measurement and a muon detector; 3 is wrong - the study of cosmic rays is its main aim.
Question 3. Assertion (A): The muon detector has special importance in GRAPES-3.
Reason (R): Through cosmic-ray muons, the study of solar and thunderstorm events becomes possible.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct, R is wrong
(d) A is wrong, R is correct
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). TIFR page: the muon detector is used to study solar and thunderstorm events - R explains A.
October 2026
Pulicat Sanctuary: Boundary Re-Determination and the Eco-Sensitive Zone Process
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Question 1. What is the correct identification of Pulicat Lake?
(a) A freshwater lake of Kerala
(b) A brackish-water lagoon wetland on the Tamil Nadu-Andhra border
(c) A Himalayan glacial lake
(d) A lagoon larger than Chilika
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (b). Pulicat is a brackish-water lagoon wetland on the Tamil Nadu-Andhra border; the bird sanctuary is famous as a flamingo habitat.
Question 2. According to the report of 27 May 2026, consider the statements below:
Statement 1: The SC-NBWL has asked for boundary rationalisation to be completed in one year.
Statement 2: The draft ESZ notification is to be resubmitted within two months.
Statement 3: The committee rejected all industrial proposals.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (a). The report: 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is wrong - after the NCSCM study, the expansion proposals of Danblock and Anjan Drug were recommended.
Question 3. Assertion (A): A suggestion came at the SC-NBWL that the sanctuary boundary be mainly confined to the lagoon area.
Reason (R): The lagoon area itself is the primary habitat of flamingos and major bird species.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct, R is wrong
(d) A is wrong, R is correct
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (a). Raman Sukumar's argument in the report is exactly this: the boundary should be confined to the lagoon because it is the major bird habitat - R explains A.
October 2026
Devon Island: Polar Desert and Mars-Analog Research
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Question 1. What is the correct identity of Devon Island?
(a) An inhabited tundra island of Norway
(b) The world's largest uninhabited island, located in Nunavut, Canada
(c) An ice-covered peninsula of Antarctica
(d) A mining town of Greenland
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to the Mars Institute/JPL, Devon Island is in Nunavut (Canada) and is considered the world's largest uninhabited island; the environment is a polar desert.
Question 2. Consider the statements given below about the Haughton-Mars Project:
Statement 1: Haughton Crater is a meteorite-impact crater about 20 km in diameter.
Statement 2: It formed about 23 million years ago (Miocene).
Statement 3: HMP was established in 2012.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). Mars Institute: 20 km diameter, ~23 million years (Miocene) - correct; HMP was established in 1997, not 2012 - 3 is wrong.
Question 3. Assertion (A): Devon Island is a useful site for Mars-analog research.
Reason (R): Its cold, dry, rocky polar-desert conditions resemble Mars's environmental features.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct, R is wrong
(d) A is wrong, R is correct
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). JPL/Mars Institute: Devon's polar-desert conditions are like Mars's, so it is an analog-research site - R is the explanation of A.
October 2026
"Bascule Bridge: The Counterweight-Lifted Movable Bridge"
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Question 1. What is the basis of a bascule bridge's working?
(a) Merely a hydraulic swing bridge
(b) A rising leaf balanced by a counterweight
(c) Only a floating pontoon
(d) A bridge held by suspension cables
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). In a bascule bridge the leaf rises while balanced by a counterweight; bascule itself means a see-saw-like balancing device.
Question 2. Per PIB (10 March 2026), what are the approved cost of the Kolkata bascule bridge modernisation and the Sagarmala assistance?
(a) Rs 41 crore cost; Rs 117.54 crore assistance
(b) Rs 117.54 crore cost; about Rs 41 crore Sagarmala assistance
(c) Rs 8,307.74 crore cost; full Central assistance
(d) Rs 117.54 crore cost; no assistance
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Per the press release, the project is of Rs 117.54 crore and will get about Rs 41 crore of financial assistance from the Sagarmala programme.
Question 3. Consider the statements given below:
Statement 1: It is a double-leaf bascule bridge.
Statement 2: Its original builder is Wagner-Biro Bridge Systems AG.
Statement 3: Per the PIB press release, the modernisation is complete.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). PIB: double-leaf, built by Wagner-Biro - both correct; the press release is only of approval, not completion, so 3 is wrong.
October 2026
Lysosomal Storage Disorders: India's National Biobank
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Question 1. What is the basic defect in Lysosomal Storage Disorders (LSD)?
(a) The number of mitochondria increasing
(b) Accumulation of toxic substances in cells due to a deficiency/defect of a lysosome enzyme
(c) Overproduction of blood cells
(d) Complete inactivation of bone marrow
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). In LSD, toxic metabolic substances accumulate because of a deficiency of the lysosome's digestive enzyme or an enzyme-activator defect.
Question 2. According to the January 2026 study, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The biobank is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (Government of India).
Statement 2: It includes samples from the period 2008 to 2025.
Statement 3: All enrolled patients will get free enzyme-replacement therapy from the biobank.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). 1 and 2 are in the study; the biobank is a research resource, and no announcement of free treatment is in the study - 3 is wrong.
Question 3. Which LSD was the most common in the study group (2008-2025)?
(a) Fabry disease
(b) Gaucher disease
(c) Pompe disease
(d) Hunter syndrome (MPS II)
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). In the group of 530 patients, Gaucher disease (70) was the most common, followed by Tay-Sachs (62), ML II/III (44) and Morquio-A (40).
October 2026
Consumer Price Index: Base Year 2024 and the New Basket
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Question 1. What is the number of weighted items in the new CPI series?
(a) 299
(b) 358
(c) 434
(d) 250
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Items rose from 299 to 358: goods from 259 to 308 and services from 40 to 50.
Question 2. What is the correct description of the new series' classification?
(a) 12 divisions in place of 6 groups, in line with COICOP 2018
(b) 6 divisions in place of 12 groups
(c) Only 4 new groups were added
(d) The classification remained unchanged
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The classification changed from 6 groups to 12 divisions in line with the international standard COICOP 2018.
Question 3. What has been included for the first time in the new series?
(a) Rural housing rent and price collection from online markets
(b) Foreign tourism spending
(c) Stock market prices
(d) Banks' deposit rates
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). Rural housing entered the basket for the first time and prices also began to be taken from 12 online markets.
October 2026
The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers: The Framework of Articles 74 and 75
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Question 1. From which amendment did the President get the right to ask once for the reconsideration of the Council of Ministers' advice?
(a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976
(b) 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978
(c) 52nd Constitutional Amendment, 1985
(d) 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). The 44th Amendment added the proviso to Article 74(1); after one reconsideration, the President must act in accordance with the advice. The 42nd Amendment had made explicit the obligation to act in accordance with the advice.
Question 2. Under Article 75(1A), what is the correct limit on the size of the Council of Ministers?
(a) Ten per cent of the members of the Lok Sabha
(b) The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, not more than fifteen per cent of the total membership of the Lok Sabha
(c) Fifteen per cent of the total members of both houses
(d) No statutory limit
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). From the 91st Amendment (2003), the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed fifteen per cent of the total membership of the Lok Sabha; the base is the Lok Sabha alone.
Question 3. Under Article 75(3), to whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
(a) To the President
(b) To the Rajya Sabha
(c) To the Lok Sabha
(d) To the Supreme Court
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha; on losing confidence, it must leave office.
October 2026
The Repo Rate and the Policy Stance: Calibrated Tightening
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which is the correct description of the October 2026 MPC meeting's decision?
(a) Repo cut by 50 basis points to 5.00%, stance neutral
(b) Repo raised by 25 basis points to 5.50%, stance calibrated tightening
(c) Repo unchanged at 5.25%, stance neutral
(d) Repo raised by 25 basis points to 5.50%, stance accommodative
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). In the 63rd meeting, a 25 basis-point rise happened unanimously and the stance changed from neutral.
Question 2. With reference to flexible inflation targeting, which statement is correct?
(a) The RBI fixes the target alone and it is WPI-based
(b) Once fixed, the target remains permanent
(c) The central government fixes the CPI target every five years in consultation with the RBI; the 4 per cent target and 2-6 per cent band have been retained from April 2026 to March 2031
(d) The target is 6 per cent CPI and the band 4-8 per cent
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). Under Section 45ZA, the central government fixes the target in consultation with the RBI; the second review happened in March 2026.
Question 3. With reference to the LAF corridor, which statement is correct?
(a) The SDF rate stays 25 basis points above the repo, the MSF 25 basis points below it
(b) The SDF rate stays 25 basis points below the repo, the MSF 25 basis points above it
(c) Both the SDF and MSF rates stay equal to the repo
(d) The corridor is linked not to the repo but to the CRR
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). After the October 2026 decision, the SDF is 5.25% and the MSF and Bank Rate 5.75%.
October 2026
Leprosy: Transmission, Treatment and Monitoring Indicators
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which statement about the transmission of leprosy is correct?
(a) It spreads through shaking hands and eating together
(b) It spreads through droplets in prolonged close contact with an untreated patient
(c) A patient keeps transmitting even after treatment begins
(d) It is only a hereditary disease
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). It does not spread through ordinary contact and transmission stops as soon as treatment begins.
Question 2. What is the correct pair with reference to multi-drug therapy (MDT)?
(a) Only one medicine, lifelong
(b) Two medicines, 12 months in both categories
(c) Three medicines, 6 months in both categories
(d) Dapsone, rifampicin, clofazimine; PB 6 months, MB 12 months
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). The three-medicine MDT cures the disease completely; the duration differs by category.
Question 3. What does a new leprosy case in a child under 15 mainly indicate?
(a) An indicator of recent transmission, though alone it does not fix the time and place of infection
(b) The disease has been completely eliminated
(c) Only a sign of delay in detection
(d) The case is imported
See the Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). A child case is an indicator of recent transmission; because of the long incubation period, one case does not tell the time and place.
October 2026
Godawan: From Conservation Breeding to Natural Habitat
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. What is the jumpstart method of the godawan programme?
(a) Catching wild birds and bringing them to the centre
(b) Closing all centres and releasing the birds
(c) Expanding habitat by planting trees in grassland
(d) Placing the centre's eggs in wild nests, which incubating females accept
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d). Six chicks in Rajasthan and two in Gujarat came out through this method.
Question 2. As per the PIB release of 4 October 2026, what was the position of the Sam and Ramdevra centres?
(a) 97 birds; 40 from wild eggs, 57 from conservation breeding; 11 selected for release
(b) Only 11 birds and all wild-born
(c) 150 birds and all ready for release
(d) 97 birds and all were released together
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). As per the PIB release of 4 October 2026, the centres held 97 birds; 86 were kept for breeding and 11 were selected for release.
Question 3. Which statement linked to the Supreme Court's order is correct?
(a) It also placed specific bans on mining
(b) It directed priority areas in Rajasthan and the undergrounding of 80 kilometres of lines
(c) It fixed an area of 14,013 square kilometres in Gujarat
(d) It immediately cancelled all power projects
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The priority areas are 14,013 square kilometres in Rajasthan and 740 in Gujarat; no specific orders were given on mining.
October 2026
Account Aggregators: Interoperability and the Consolidated Account Statement
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. As per the Reserve Bank statement of 7 October 2026, what will interoperability of NBFC Account Aggregators make possible?
(a) All bank accounts will be merged into one bank
(b) The customer will be able to share information without giving consent
(c) The customer will be able to view and share information from different information providers through any aggregator of their choice
(d) The aggregator will directly transfer the customer's money
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). Interoperability is a framework for access to and sharing of information; it is neither a merger of accounts nor a payment service.
Question 2. Which statement is correct about the arrangement of adding bank deposits to the consolidated account statement?
(a) It is only for non-demat customers
(b) A SEBI-regulated depository will be able to include bank deposit information in the CAS through the aggregator
(c) Providing bank deposit information is now mandatory for all account holders
(d) This will convert bank deposits into demat holdings
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Demat holders will be able to see both kinds of information in one statement; non-demat customers can obtain a consolidated view through the aggregator.
Question 3. What is the correct conclusion about the implementation status of the two measures?
(a) Both services became available to all customers on 7 October 2026
(b) The service started only for demat holders
(c) The announcement will come only after December 2026
(d) Implementation is expected by 31 December 2026; the announcement is not immediate availability
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). The statement gives an expected implementation date; announcement and actual availability are different.
October 2026
Optogenetics: Light, Ion Channels and Controlled Experiments
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. In the described mechanism of channelrhodopsin, what does blue light do?
(a) It removes DNA from every cell
(b) It turns the protein into a metal
(c) It opens the channel and brings a change in the flow of charged ions
(d) It gives an identical signal to every cell without any protein
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). In the official description, the flow of ions through the light-controlled protein channel produces an electrical response.
Question 2. How does optogenetics go beyond merely watching nerve activity?
(a) By changing the activity of chosen cells, it tests the link with their function
(b) It only takes still pictures
(c) It reads all the memories of every human being
(d) It treats an animal experiment as an approved treatment for every human disease
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). A controlled intervention helps in testing the causal role.
Question 3. Which statement about the arrangement of a light-sensitive protein and suitable light is correct?
(a) Merely shining any light is always sufficient
(b) Every cell naturally gives the same optogenetic response
(c) Winning the prize means a treatment for every disease is now approved
(d) The presence of the protein and the light are both necessary parts of the mechanism
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). In the described technique, the cell's genetic preparation and light control are tied together; the honour is not a universal approval of treatment.
October 2026
SIOFA: Fishery Resources and the Status of Parties
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Question 1. There is news of domestic approval of accession, but the official parties list shows India as a CNCP. What should be done?
(a) Treat CP status as complete from the approval alone
(b) Declare India a PFE
(c) Treat the difference between CNCP and CP as irrelevant
(d) Keep approval and full party status separate
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d). A domestic decision is not independent proof that the international process is complete.
Question 2. Which statement about SIOFA's resource scope is correct?
(a) The highly migratory species of UNCLOS Annex-I are outside its remit
(b) All marine species of the world are included without exception
(c) All fishery rights of coastal states come to an end
(d) Its purpose is only the management of tuna
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The basic arrangement excludes highly migratory species; the IOTC's scope is different.
Question 3. Which group is included in IUU fishing?
(a) Only import, use and trade
(b) Only marine monitoring and relief
(c) Illegal, unreported and unregulated fishing
(d) Only laboratory experiments in aquaculture
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). IUU expands to Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated fishing.
October 2026
Kamchatka: Magnitude, Shaking and the Scope of a Bulletin
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. In an earthquake, different intensity was recorded in two cities. Which statement is correct?
(a) Two magnitudes for the event are necessary
(b) Intensity is just another name for depth
(c) Magnitude equals local shaking
(d) One event can produce different intensity at different places
See the answer and reason
Answer: (d). Intensity is the shaking at a specific place; magnitude describes the size of the event.
Question 2. The preliminary magnitude is 7.0 and the reviewed magnitude is 6.9. What is the appropriate conclusion?
(a) These are necessarily two events
(b) New data or method can improve the estimate of one event
(c) Magnitude and intensity are the same
(d) The preliminary number is always more accurate
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). Estimates can be revised; a difference alone does not prove a separate event.
Question 3. No tsunami threat was stated for Guam and the named islands. What is the conclusion?
(a) The threat has ended forever for all oceans
(b) The bulletin can never be revised
(c) Read the conclusion within the scope of that event and the named areas
(d) The earthquake never happened
See the answer and reason
Answer: (c). An area-specific assessment cannot be made into a universal permanent declaration.
October 2026
Maitree-XV: The India-Thailand Exercise and the Importance of Terrain
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Maitree is a military exercise of which pair of countries?
(a) India-Kazakhstan
(b) India-Mongolia
(c) India-Thailand
(d) India-France
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). Maitree is an exercise of the Indian Army and the Royal Thai Army.
Question 2. Which is the correct pair?
(a) 2026 announced location - Surat Thani, Thailand
(b) 2026 announced location - only Umroi, Meghalaya
(c) Maitree - multilateral maritime exercise
(d) Charter reference - organisation by the United Nations is mandatory
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Umroi was the location of the previous 2025 edition, not of 2026.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
1. Jungle and semi-urban environments are part of the training.
2. The departure release by itself proves successful completion.
Which option is correct?
(a) Both correct
(b) Both wrong
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). The training environments are in the source; completion needs separate confirmation.
October 2026
KAZIND: Identifying the India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise (Prelims Practice)
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Question 1. KAZIND is an exercise of which pair of countries?
(a) India and Thailand
(b) India and Kazakhstan
(c) India and Mongolia
(d) India and Japan
Answer and reason
Answer: (b). KAZIND is the India-Kazakhstan joint military exercise.
Question 2. When a United Nations mandate reference is mentioned, which conclusion is not appropriate?
(a) The exercise may have a counter-terrorism training context
(b) It is an India-Kazakhstan exercise
(c) The United Nations itself is its host
(d) Interoperability may be a training aim
Answer and reason
Answer: (c). A mandate reference is not proof of the host's identity.
Question 3. On the basis of the 28 September departure release and the announced final date, what is appropriate to say?
(a) Successful completion is independently verified
(b) Every announced aim was met
(c) Both contingents were deployed in a real war
(d) The schedule was announced; a separate confirmation is needed for the closing outcome
Answer and reason
Answer: (d). Information about a departure and a schedule is not a source for the final outcome.
October 2026
Himalayan Chandra Telescope: Operated Remotely, Observing on Site
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which statement about HCT is correct?
(a) It is a radio instrument placed on the Moon
(b) It is an optical-infrared telescope located at Hanle
(c) It measures only X-rays
(d) It is a navigation satellite orbiting the Earth
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The IIA's introduction describes HCT as the 2-metre optical-infrared telescope at Hanle.
Question 2. Consider the following pairs:
1. Hanle - the telescope's site
2. Hoskote - the remote operations centre
3. Satellite link - the means of communication
How many pairs are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) None
(d) All three
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). The physical site, the control centre and the link are different roles.
Question 3. What is appropriate about first light and the start of science observation?
(a) They can be different technical milestones and different dates
(b) They necessarily happen on the same day
(c) First light means the launch of a satellite
(d) Two dates being found makes the telescope's existence doubtful
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). In HCT, first light in 2000 and the start of science observation in 2003 are different milestones.
October 2026
GAGAN: How Satellite-Based Augmentation Differs from Independent Navigation
Read the full article →October 2026
Unified Health Interface: An Open Network, Not a Single App
Read the full article →October 2026
Arctic Council: Members, Permanent Participants and Observers
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Which of the following is not a member state of the Arctic Council?
(a) Canada
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) Finland
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). India is an observer; the other three are among the eight member states.
Question 2. Consider the following pairs:
1. Permanent participant - indigenous organisation
2. India - non-Arctic observer
3. Kingdom of Denmark - member state
How many pairs are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) None
(d) All three
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). All three institutional categories match the official description.
Question 3. Which statement about observers is appropriate?
(a) They hold independent decision power equal to the member states
(b) They can contribute at the level of working groups
(c) They automatically gain sovereignty over Arctic territory
(d) They become included in the list of the eight states
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Contribution is possible, but observer status is not the decision power of a member state.
October 2026
Roopkund: Ancient DNA, Dating and Conclusions
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Question 1. Consider the following regarding the 2019 Roopkund research:
1. Genome-wide ancient DNA of 38 individuals was studied.
2. Three genetic groups were identified.
3. It was confirmed that all remains were deposited at one time.
Which statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The third statement is wrong; dating indicates different periods.
Question 2. Which pair of a method and its main indication is wrong?
(a) Ancient DNA - genetic relationships
(b) Radiocarbon dating - period of the remains
(c) Stable isotopes - diet-related indications
(d) Genetic similarity - a person's certain citizenship
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). No certain conclusion about modern citizenship follows from ancestry.
Question 3. Skeletons at one site were found to be of different periods. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
(a) They were all of the same family
(b) A single day's disaster is not sufficient to explain all of them
(c) The cause of their death is certainly the same
(d) No movement of any kind happened there
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). Evidence of different periods challenges the assumption of one uniform death event.
October 2026
Idukki: Difference Between the Dam, the Reservoir and the Power House
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Question 1. Consider the following pairs:
1. Idukki dam – Periyar river
2. Cheruthoni dam – spillway of the reservoir
3. Moolamattom – underground power house
How many pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). All three relations are correct according to the KSEB project description.
Question 2. Consider the following statements in the context of Idukki:
1. It is a concrete arch dam.
2. Idukki, Cheruthoni and Kulamavu together form the reservoir.
3. Every dam of the project has its own spillway.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). The spillway is at Cheruthoni; the conclusion that every dam has a spillway is wrong.
Question 3. The capacity of a hydroelectric project is 780 MW. What conclusion follows from this?
(a) It produced 780 megawatt-hours of energy in the same year
(b) Each of its dams produces 780 MW
(c) The availability of water does not affect generation
(d) This is power capacity; time must also be known for energy generation
View answer and reason
Answer: (d). Power and energy are different quantities; capacity alone does not give annual generation.
October 2026
Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT): The Institution and the Facts of a Recent Order
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about ITAT:
Statement 1: It is a quasi-judicial body for direct tax appeals.
Statement 2: It was established in January 1941.
Statement 3: It is only another name for the ordinary assessing officer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The body's appellate role is different from that of the assessing officer.
Question 2. Which conclusion about the new Income-tax Act coming into effect from 1 April 2026 is appropriate?
(a) All orders of earlier years are automatically invalid
(b) No proceedings of earlier years can continue
(c) Under the transition and savings provisions, old proceedings can continue
(d) The numbering of all old sections is the same in the new law
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). The repeal should not be read as equal to an automatic end of old rights and proceedings.
Question 3. A company reported a favourable ITAT order and a future application to give it effect. What is the most appropriate conclusion?
(a) The entire tax amount has been received in cash
(b) No substantial question of law can now arise at all
(c) Receiving the order and its implementation are separate stages
(d) An appeal to the High Court will be automatically admitted on every factual disagreement
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). The mention of a future application indicates that implementation remains; it is not proof of cash receipt.
October 2026
Valley of Flowers: National Park, World Heritage, Biosphere - Three Identities
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
1. Nanda Devi's original World Heritage listing came in 1988.
2. The Valley of Flowers was included in this property in the 2005 extension.
3. The Valley of Flowers had an independent World Heritage listing in 1988.
Which statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (a). 1988 is the year of the original Nanda Devi listing and 2005 of the Valley of Flowers' inclusion.
Question 2. Consider the following pairs:
1. Current criterion (vii) - natural scenic beauty
2. Current criterion (x) - biodiversity conservation
3. Both parks - core areas of the Nanda Devi Biosphere
How many pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (c). All three relationships are in line with the current UNESCO description.
Question 3. What is the most appropriate meaning drawn from calling a plant "endemic alpine"?
(a) It is a decorative species brought from outside
(b) Altitude-related ecology and limited natural distribution are two separate features
(c) Every alpine plant is found in only one valley
(d) Its natural distribution is identical on every mountain in the world
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (b). Alpine indicates ecological altitude, endemic a distribution range; neither is a synonym of exotic.
October 2026
The Barak River and National Waterway-16
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Barak river:
Statement 1: Its source is in the hills of Manipur.
Statement 2: The Lakhipur-Bhanga stretch of National Waterway-16 is 121 km.
Statement 3: 121 km defines the extent of the entire international basin.
Which statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). 121 km is the length of the designated waterway stretch, not of the whole basin.
Question 2. Consider the following pairs:
Pair 1: Lakhipur-Bhanga - National Waterway-16
Pair 2: Surma-Kushiyara - the Barak's connected drainage in Bangladesh
Pair 3: The hilly area south of Mao - the Barak's source reference
How many pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). All three pairs are correct according to the relevant official descriptions.
Question 3. A river basin extends over parts of three countries. Which conclusion is the most appropriate?
(a) The main stream necessarily passes through all three countries
(b) Every part of the basin is one National Waterway
(c) The river must have three different sources
(d) The catchment area's spread should be examined separately from the main stream's route
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d). The basin includes the tributaries' catchment too. Its spread is not proof of the main stream's route.
October 2026
"Vasuki Indicus: From Fossil to Estimate"
Read the full article →View the Prelims questions
Question 1. With reference to Vasuki indicus, consider the following pairs:
Pair 1: Fossil site - Kutch, Gujarat
Pair 2: Geological age - early middle Eocene
Pair 3: Fossil material - a complete 15-metre skeleton
Which pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). The material is 27 associated vertebrae, not a complete skeleton.
Question 2. A length of 11-15 metres has been derived from vertebra measurements by the comparative method. What is the most appropriate conclusion?
(a) Each vertebra was 11 metres long
(b) The complete skeleton was measured directly
(c) The body's length is an inference drawn from the available evidence
(d) All extinct snakes were at least 15 metres long
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). The direct measurement of the bones and the body length inferred from them are different.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Vasuki is a snake alive today.
Statement 2: Its original scientific description was published in 2024.
Statement 3: The Naredi Formation is the name of a stratigraphic unit.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Vasuki is an extinct snake.
October 2026
MMX: Returning Samples from Phobos to Trace the Origin of Mars's Moons
Read the full article →
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Analysis, answer outlines and practice questions
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November 2026
Supreme Court's Vehicular-Emissions Direction: Who Answers for Outside Vehicles in Delhi-NCR
Read the full article →View the practice questions
Question 1: With reference to the Supreme Court's order of 6 November 2026, consider the following statements:
I. The court has sought a response only from the Delhi government.
II. The court has sought information on inter-State coordination mechanisms for vehicle regulation.
III. The order also asks for measures to prevent the entry of overage vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
- Statement I is incorrect: responses have been sought from the MCD, the Delhi government, the Delhi Police (Traffic) and the States of Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
- Statement II is correct: inter-State coordination mechanisms between Delhi and the neighbouring States have been asked about.
- Statement III is correct: measures to prevent the entry and operation of overage or end-of-life vehicles have been sought.
Question 2: Which CAQM recommendation forms the backdrop of the Supreme Court's 23 February 2026 order?
(a) A ban on new coal-based thermal power plants within 300 km of Delhi
(b) An immediate complete ban on all diesel vehicles in the national capital
(c) A permanent suspension of all construction activity in the NCR
(d) Free entry of vehicles from neighbouring States into the capital
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
The 23 February order sought a joint proposal for shifting coal-based industries out of the NCR, against the backdrop of CAQM's recommendation to ban new coal-based thermal power plants within a 300 km radius of Delhi. The other options figure in no order or recommendation.
For the Mains Examination
Question: "Delhi-NCR's air problem is no longer one jurisdiction's problem but one of inter-State co-responsibility." Comment in the light of the Supreme Court's recent directions. (Answer in 250 words - 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Delhi's landlocked geography and NCR's economic-geographic interlinkages; the cumulative burden of emissions.
Body:
- The direction of the 6 November order: regulation of outside vehicles' entry, and the demand for data and inter-State coordination
- The CAQM recommendations in the 21 January and 23 February orders and the weakness of compliance reporting
- The institutional framework: shared responsibility of CAQM, the municipal corporation, traffic police and the States
Conclusion: A time-bound roadmap and verifiable compliance reporting are the basis of durable relief.
November 2026
Temporary Registration of Health Professionals: The Test of Competence in the NCAHP Draft
Read the full article →View the practice questions
Question 1: Consider the following about the NCAHP's proposed registration system described on 11 November 2026:
1. A distinction has been kept between temporary and regular registration of eligible professionals.
2. Where applicable, the path to regular registration can include a bridge course, supervised training and a qualifying examination.
3. Once a PR UID is received, all conditions of regular registration automatically end.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statements 1 and 2 match the proposed system.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: the PR UID is an identification for temporary registration; regular registration depends on fulfilling the prescribed conditions. Do not treat the draft as final rules in force.
Mains Practice Question
"Registration of health professionals is meaningful only when linked to verified competence and patient safety." Discuss in the context of the NCAHP's proposed framework. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The difference between a draft and the system in force.
Main Body: The path from temporary to regular registration; the role of document checks, skill bridges, supervised training and digital identification; challenges of training quality, access and appeal.
Conclusion: Beyond number-based registration, the test is quality of service.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-II: governance, health services, human resources and regulation
Prelims: NCAHP, temporary and regular registration, skill-bridge coursesNovember 2026
One in Ten Billion: The Meaning and Limits of LHCb's Evidence of an Ultra-Rare Decay
Read the full article →View the practice questions
Question 1: With reference to LHCb's November 2026 result, consider the following statements:
1. Evidence has been presented from a single experiment for the decay of a B0 into a muon-antimuon pair.
2. The available results are consistent with the expectations of the Standard Model.
3. This result has announced the final discovery of a new fundamental particle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- The study has given evidence of the ultra-rare decay, and its main measurements match the Standard Model.
- It has not been called proof of a final discovery of a new particle or of the Standard Model being refuted.
Mains Practice Question
"The search for new physics is not limited to directly seeing new particles." Explain with reference to precise measurement of ultra-rare decays. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Two routes: direct discovery and precise measurement of known processes.
Main Body: The low rate and theoretical prediction of a rare decay; the possibility of heavy particles' indirect influence; advanced detectors and background analysis; evidence versus discovery; the limit of the result being consistent with the Standard Model.
Conclusion: Strong scientific conclusions come only with more data, controlled uncertainties and confirmation.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-III: science and technology
Prelims: LHCb, meson, muon, Standard Model, statistical significanceNovember 2026
The 'Temple' Wearable: New Technology and the Scientific Debate Over Health Claims
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Question 1: Consider the following statements:
1. Photoplethysmography (PPG) is an optical technique in which volume changes in blood vessels are measured with the help of light
2. In India, medical devices are regulated by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
- Statement 1 is correct: in PPG, light is cast on the skin and signals of blood flow are measured from changes in absorption; a smartwatch's heart-rate measurement is based on this principle.
- Statement 2 is correct: the CDSCO is the central regulator of medical devices under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
Mains Practice Question
"The consumer health-tech boom has created a tension between innovation and scientific validation." Comment with reference to the recent wearable-device controversy and suggest improvements in the regulatory framework for consumer protection. (Answer in 250 words - 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The health claims of wearables and the consumer's trust.
Main Body: Company claims versus independent clinical evidence; the difference between a surface signal and a conclusion about the brain's interior; the intended-use-based medical-device test; data security and phased legal commencement dates.
Conclusion: Validation and clear consumer information alongside innovation.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-III: science and technology, startups, consumer protection
Prelims: wearable technology, DPDP Act 2023, photoplethysmography (PPG)November 2026
Keralam at 70: The Achievements and Challenges of the 'Kerala Model'
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Question 1: Consider the following statements:
1. The state of Kerala was formed on 1 November 1956 under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956
2. The Kerala (Alteration of Name) Act, 2026 has renamed the state Keralam
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
- Both statements are correct. The formation is of 1 November 1956, while the name-alteration Act is of 2026; the dates of formation and renaming are different.
Mains Practice Question
"The Kerala model is proof that social investment can be a complement to, not a substitute for, economic prosperity." Evaluate this statement in the context of Keralam completing 70 years and shed light on the challenges before the state. (Answer in 250 words - 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The context of seventy years, keeping the 1956 formation and the 2026 renaming distinct.
Main Body: Education, health and social reform; local participation; economic opportunity, public finance, migration and the challenge of an ageing population; the relationship between social investment and productive capacity.
Conclusion: Preserving the achievements while finding a new balance of employment and fiscal stability.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-I: reorganisation of states; Paper-II: federalism, models of development
Prelims: States Reorganisation Act 1956, formation of KeralamNovember 2026
Women's Labour Participation Rises, but the Question of Job Quality Remains
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Question 1: Consider the following statements:
1. Under the revamped PLFS (from January 2025), quarterly labour indicators are released for both rural and urban areas
2. The PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
- Statement 1 is correct: from January 2025 the revamped PLFS gives monthly and quarterly estimates for both rural and urban areas under the current weekly status (CWS); the April-June 2025 bulletin was the first of this series.
- Statement 2 is correct: the PLFS is conducted by the NSO (MoSPI).
Mains Practice Question
"Women's labour force participation in India is rising, but the quality of employment remains a matter of concern." Review this statement in the light of recent PLFS data and suggest measures for improvement. (Answer in 250 words - 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: A rise in female LFPR and WPR, but participation and job quality are separate questions.
Main Body: The difference among agriculture, self-employment and unpaid family work; the right denominators; the limits of a seasonal quarterly change; regular income, social security, care and mobility.
Conclusion: Raising the quality of employment and women's choices alongside the count of jobs.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-I: society (women's empowerment); Paper-III: labour, employment, informal economy
Prelims: PLFS, LFPR/WPR/UR, NSONovember 2026
Police Encounters and the Rule of Law: The Cost of Instant Justice
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Question 1: With reference to the investigation of police encounters, in which of the following cases did the Supreme Court lay down guidelines for mandatory FIR registration, independent investigation and magisterial inquiry?
(a) D.K. Basu v State of West Bengal
(b) People's Union for Civil Liberties v State of Maharashtra
(c) Prakash Singh v Union of India
(d) Bhim Singh v State of Jammu and Kashmir
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
In PUCL v State of Maharashtra in 2014, the Supreme Court issued 16-point guidelines for investigating fatal police encounters. The other options are different civil-liberties or police-reform cases; this question is based on the encounter-death investigation process of the PUCL judgement.
Mains Practice Question
"The culture of encounters creates the illusion of instant justice but weakens the rule of law." Comment with reference to recent incidents and judicial guidelines. (Answer in 250 words - 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The popular demand for instant justice and procedure established by law.
Main Body: The difference between accused and guilty; the PUCL judgement's safeguards of FIR, independent investigation and magisterial inquiry; political support and police accountability; scientific investigation and prosecution as the alternative.
Conclusion: Firm action should remain within the law; retribution must not take the place of process.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-II: governance, police reform, rule of law; Paper-IV: ethics
Prelims: PUCL v State of Maharashtra (2014) guidelines, NHRCNovember 2026
In Jail Even After Bail: The Supreme Court's Direction to the UP Government
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Question 1: Consider the following statements:
1. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
2. The provision of free legal aid is related to Article 39-A of the Indian Constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
- Statement 1 is correct: NALSA was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
- Statement 2 is correct: Article 39-A directs equal justice and free legal aid.
Mains Practice Question
"Remaining in jail because of poverty even after being granted bail is a failure of the justice system." Critically examine this statement in the light of the Supreme Court's recent directions. (Answer in 250 words - 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The difference between a bail order and actual release.
Main Body: Economic and procedural barriers; the responsibilities of the state, legal services institutions and the courts; the incomplete geographic coverage of available data; review of conditions and data coordination.
Conclusion: Institutional compliance to turn legal relief into real liberty.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-II: administration, judiciary, fundamental rights
Prelims: Article 21, NALSA/DLSA, suo motu cognisanceNovember 2026
The Debt of Slavery: The Legal Basis of Jamaica's Reparations Petition
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Question 1: Consider the following statements about Jamaica's reparations petition:
1. Jamaica has filed its reparations petition in the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
2. The petition uses Section 4 of the Judicial Committee Act, 1833.
3. Britain's King Charles III is the head of state of Jamaica.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
- Statement 1 is incorrect - the petition was filed with the monarch and referred to the Privy Council; it was not filed in the ICJ.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Mains Practice Question
"Jamaica's reparations petition is a new turn in the international debate on colonial justice." Examine its legal basis and challenges. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Introduce the petition and its route (monarch to Privy Council).
Main Body: The three legal questions; Section 4 of the 1833 Act; why the ICJ route is unavailable; the limit of there being no monetary claim; moral-legal dimensions of the reparations debate; implications for former colonies.
Conclusion: Significance of the March 2027 hearing; the juridification of the reparations debate.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Papers I and II: world history (colonialism), international relations, international law
Prelims: Caribbean region, Privy Council, international organisationsNovember 2026
India's Sacrifice in the World Wars: The History We Kept Forgetting
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Question 1: Consider the following statements about India's contribution in the World Wars:
1. During the First World War, the Indian Army had grown to about 1.4 million by 1918.
2. In the Second World War, the Indian Army was the largest volunteer army in history, with more than 2.5 million personnel.
3. The Imphal and Kohima fronts were related to the defence of India's mainland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d)
- All three statements are correct.
- About 74,000 Indian soldiers were killed in the First World War, while the CWGC commemorates about 87,000 Indian military dead of the Second World War.
Mains Practice Question
"India's contribution in the World Wars has been denied justice in both history and remembrance." Comment. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Introduce the Remembrance tradition and India's indifference.
Main Body: Figures of military contribution in both wars; the colonial context; the Imphal-Kohima front; the question of remembrance; the soldiers' personal role.
Conclusion: The need for a due place in national remembrance.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-I: modern Indian history, world history
Prelims: World Wars, history of the Indian ArmyNovember 2026
A Countdown for Right-Wing Populism? From the American Midterms to Europe
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Question 1: Consider the following statements about populism:
1. Populist politics can appear in both left-wing and right-wing forms.
2. An electoral defeat in one country is not, by itself, proof of the end of a global political trend.
3. Populism and membership of one particular political party are the same thing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement 1 is correct - populist politics can appear in different ideologies.
- Statement 2 is correct - country-wise results should be interpreted with domestic context.
- Statement 3 is incorrect - it is not synonymous with membership of any one party.
Mains Practice Question
"Do the global electoral results of 2026 signal a countdown for right-wing populism?" Critically examine. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Define populism and its rise after 2008.
Main Body: The Trump effect and global spread; the different kinds of evidence from America and Hungary; the limits of the cascade effect; differences in country-wise conditions; the roots of populism (economic inequality, immigration, youth discontent).
Conclusion: A decline in the trend is possible, but without resolving the root causes the possibility of a return remains.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-II: international relations, comparative politics
Prelims: world politics, major electionsNovember 2026
Internet from the Sky: The Starlink Debate and the Test of India's Strategic Autonomy
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Question 1: Consider the following statements about India's satellite-communication sector:
1. TRAI has recommended a new category of 'Satellite Communication Network Provider Authorisation' under Section 3(1)(b) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
2. TRAI has recommended auction of spectrum for the feeder and user links of SCN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement 1 is correct - TRAI has recommended the SCN Provider Authorisation.
- Statement 2 is incorrect - TRAI has proposed administrative assignment (not auction) of spectrum for feeder and user links; the demand for auction was made by a private telecom company and was not accepted by TRAI.
Mains Practice Question
"In the era of foreign private companies entering satellite communications, ensuring a balance of national security and strategic autonomy is a test of India's regulatory capacity." Comment. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Introduce the Starlink debate and the growing relevance of satellite internet in India.
Main Body: Promise and limits of satellite internet; current status of licensing and security clearance; TRAI's new SCN authorisation and D2D recommendations; security provisions (interception, gateways, signal blocking); the strategic-autonomy argument.
Conclusion: Transparent, uniform and security-based regulation is the durable solution.
Syllabus mapping:
General Studies Paper-III: science and technology, internal security, economy
Prelims: telecom regulation, spectrum assignment, satellite communicationsNovember 2026
Serving Judicial Documents Across Borders: Why the Hague Route and the Central Authority Matter
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Question 1: With reference to the Hague Service Convention, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It relates to the service abroad of documents in civil or commercial matters.
Statement 2: India's designated Central Authority is the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Statement 3: Sending a request for service is by itself proof of an allegation being proven or of a final decision.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement 1 is correct: Article 1 gives the scope of civil or commercial matters.
- Statement 2 is correct: India's designated Central Authority is the Ministry of Law and Justice.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: a request, proof of service and the outcome of a lawsuit are separate questions.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - international agreements, judicial cooperation and institutional processMains Practice Question
Why are the prescribed process for service of documents and the role of the Central Authority important in cross-border civil judicial cooperation? Discuss. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: In a cross-border lawsuit, timely notice to the person concerned and clear institutional contact between countries are essential.
Main Body: Institutional contact: the Central Authority is the formal means of receiving requests and arranging service. Clarity of process: the documents, language, acceptable method and the recipient's address matter. Proof: the certificate of service and the reasons for failure make the state of the process clear. National declarations: respect for a country's objections to alternative methods under the Convention is necessary. Limit: service is notice of a lawsuit, not proof of the truth of an allegation or of a final decision.
Conclusion: Judicial cooperation should be assessed apart from political controversy, on the basis of the applicable Convention, declarations and domestic procedure.
November 2026
WHO's 'Together for Science and Health': Evidence, Trust and the Communication Test
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Question 1: With reference to Together for Science and Health, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a global movement launched by the World Health Organization.
Statement 2: Its areas of cooperation include science and society, science and policy, and science and communication.
Statement 3: WHO compulsorily provides funding for activities to every institution that joins it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement 1 is correct: WHO announced its launch on 10 November 2026.
- Statement 2 is correct: these three areas are on the official initiative page.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: WHO clarifies that institutions arrange the funding of their activities themselves.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - health, international institutions and governance
Mains: GS-III - science communicationMains Practice Question
Why are public trust and communication necessary alongside the availability of scientific evidence in health policy? Discuss. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: Scientific information turns into health benefit only when it is understood and used in the right context in decisions.
Main Body: Trust: clarifying the quality and limits of research makes it easier to weigh information. Society's participation: the community's needs and experience help frame questions and make information useful. Policy: dialogue between researchers and decision-makers connects evidence to public decisions. Communication: simple language, acknowledgement of uncertainty and a fact-based answer to misinformation are essential. Accountability: do not treat an initiative's announcement as a result; test actual use and reach in policy.
Conclusion: Keeping evidence, participation and transparent communication together builds the basis of better health decisions.
November 2026
FDA's GLP-1 Warning on NAION: Reading a Rare Risk Without Overreading It
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Question 1: With reference to drug safety, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Adding a safety warning to a medicine's label is by itself a ban on that medicine.
Statement 2: An event rate per person-year cannot, without conversion, be treated as the percentage of all users.
Statement 3: Even after a medicine's approval, safety monitoring can yield new information.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
- Statement 1 is incorrect: adding a warning and a ban are distinct regulatory steps.
- Statement 2 is correct: the person-year is the base of a rate that combines people and time.
- Statement 3 is correct: after approval, wider use and safety monitoring can bring new information to light.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - health and regulation
Mains: GS-III - science and technologyMains Practice Question
Why are safety monitoring and risk communication necessary after a medicine's approval? Discuss with reference to rare adverse effects and the limits of evidence. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: After the evidence available at the time of approval, wider use can bring new safety information to light. Drug safety is therefore a continuing process.
Main Body: Different evidence: controlled trials, observational studies and adverse-event reports give different information. Rare events: with few events, uncertainty and the choice of comparison group matter. Clarity of measures: keep event rate, person-years and percentage distinct. Risk communication: do not turn a warning into a guarantee for ordinary use, nor a certainty of harm for every patient. Regulatory response: update the label, information to health professionals and monitoring in line with new evidence.
Conclusion: Clear information and person-specific medical judgement are better than both fear and carelessness.
November 2026
Hosur ETP Deaths: Effluent Treatment Capacity Is No Substitute for Worker Safety
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Question 1: With reference to industrial effluent treatment and workplace safety, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The presence of an ETP is by itself a guarantee of the safety of all workers doing maintenance in it.
Statement 2: It is necessary to assess both effluent treatment and worker safety together.
Statement 3: A compensation amount in a reported settlement establishes a uniform statutory amount for all industrial accidents.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
- Statement 1 is incorrect: treatment facility and safe operation are separate yardsticks.
- Statement 2 is correct: both environmental and worker safety are necessary.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: an incident-specific settlement does not by itself become a universal statutory rule.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - labour welfare and accountability
Mains: GS-III - industry and environmentMains Practice Question
Why is it necessary to ensure worker safety alongside environmental compliance in industrial effluent treatment plants? Discuss with reference to contract work and emergency rescue. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: Treating effluent protects the environment, but the safe operation of a treatment facility is a separate responsibility that protects workers. The Hosur incident shows the need to see both together.
Main Body: Identifying risk: situations such as confined spaces, gas exposure and accidental entry during maintenance should be checked. Contract work: assigning work must come with supervision of safety and a clear fixing of responsibilities. Equipment and procedure: appropriate safety equipment, gas monitoring and entry control should not remain limited to paper compliance. Rescue: a pre-determined safe arrangement should prevent more people being put at risk in the attempt to rescue an affected person. Accountability: independent inspection and corrective action; the final cause and blame should be fixed on the basis of inquiry.
Conclusion: Safe maintenance and worker safety deserve as much importance as environmental treatment capacity. Compensation is not a substitute for preventing accidents.
November 2026
Haridwar Ganga Cleaning: Solid Waste Removal and the Separate Question of Water Quality
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Question 1: With reference to the assessment of river pollution, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The microbiological quality of water can be determined solely from a fall or rise in the weight of solid waste.
Statement 2: It is essential to keep the period and place of an old audit clear.
Statement 3: In the use classification of river water, category B is designated for organised outdoor bathing.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
- Statement 1 is incorrect: the measures of solid waste and microbiological quality are different.
- Statement 2 is correct: the 2018-23 audit cannot be called a November 2026 test without fresh samples.
- Statement 3 is correct: below the report's Table 4.2, this is the use class of B.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-III - environment, river pollution and urban waste managementMains Practice Question
"The assessment of river cleaning should go beyond visible cleanliness, resting on evidence of effluent treatment and water quality." Discuss. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: Removing waste from a river ghat is necessary but not the complete test of river health. The Haridwar example shows the need to measure cleaning and water quality separately.
Main Body: Different problem, different remedy: collecting solid waste does not by itself end the problem of sewage or dissolved pollutants. Performance of treatment: a plant being built and running to standards are different; regular effluent testing is essential. Place and period: do not treat an old audit as a current sample, or one place as representative of the whole river. Transparency of data: test results, methods and locations should be public so progress can be judged. Continuity beyond events: preparation for crowded events should strengthen daily waste management and sewage services.
Conclusion: A reliable assessment of river health is possible only when cleaning drives are joined to treatment, monitoring and long-term operation.
November 2026
Tamil Nadu Disbands Kurian Joseph Committee on Union-State Relations: Continuity After the Handover Is the Test
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Question 1: With reference to Tamil Nadu's Union-State relations committee, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The chair of the Union-State relations committee was Justice Kurian Joseph.
Statement 2: The committee submitted Part I of its report on 16 February 2026.
Statement 3: Once the report was submitted, all its suggestions automatically became constitutional amendments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement 1 is correct: the government release names the chair.
- Statement 2 is correct: the release refers to Part I being submitted.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: a committee's report and a constitutional amendment are distinct processes; submission of a report is not by itself an amendment.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - federal structure, constitutional review and accountability in governanceMains Practice Question
"In the reorganisation of policy-review bodies, continuity of records, expertise and public accountability is as necessary as administrative efficiency." Discuss in the context of the review of Union-State relations. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: Changing the structure of a review committee or commission can be an administrative decision, but it is essential to preserve continuity of the subject and the work already done.
Main Body: Reducing duplication: coordination among bodies with similar mandates can save resources. Preserving expertise: connect earlier research and experience to the new body's work. Records and pending work: a responsible handover prevents work done with public resources from being lost. Transparency: make the difference between a report, its recommendations and the government's decision on them clear. Federal trust: a review of constitutional subjects needs space for diverse views and clear reasons for decisions.
Conclusion: Efficiency is not established merely by disbanding a body. The quality, continuity and accountability of the work that follows are the real tests.
November 2026
Election Neutrality of Re-employed Retired Officials: The ECI's Clarification of Model Code Limits
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Question 1: With reference to the Election Commission's directions on the electoral neutrality of re-employed retired officers, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: They relate to retired officers reappointed to or re-engaged with the government of a state or union territory.
Statement 2: These directions apply political-neutrality restrictions like those on serving officers during the Model Code of Conduct period.
Statement 3: They establish a general restriction on political activity for all retired citizens at all times.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement 1 is correct: both reports describe the scope of reappointed or re-engaged officers.
- Statement 2 is correct: this is the reference to serving-officer-like restrictions during the MCC period.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: the scope cannot be stretched to all retired citizens or to a general political restriction for all time.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - Election Commission, electoral reform and administrative neutralityMains Practice Question
"To ensure electoral neutrality, the actual nature of a government role matters, not merely the name of the service status." Discuss. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: Trust in public administration during elections is built only when its resources and authority give no side an undue advantage. The case of re-employed retired officers raises the question of role-based neutrality.
Main Body: Government role and influence: a person reappointed after retirement can also hold administrative access. Impartiality: the reports stress distance from election campaigning and political neutrality. Protecting the electoral process: reducing unnecessary government pressure or interference on election-related officers is necessary. Limited scope: read the directions in the correct context of officers who re-enter a government role and the MCC period; do not turn them into a general restriction on all retired citizens. Accountability: clear written directions, identification of roles and fact-based action on complaints are essential.
Conclusion: The goal of impartiality is met through clear roles, the right scope and equal compliance, not through unlimited bars on unrelated civic rights.
November 2026
Total Milk Up, Butterfat Tight: Why Reading the Dairy Balance Needs More Than One Number
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Question 1: While reading statistics on milk and dairy products, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The growth rate of total milk production and the percentage of fat in milk are the same figure.
Statement 2: An ex-dairy price cannot, without additional evidence, be called the retail price at all shops.
Statement 3: The demand-supply position of fat and SNF can be different.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
- Statement 1 is incorrect: production growth and milk composition are distinct measures.
- Statement 2 is correct: ex-dairy and retail levels are different.
- Statement 3 is correct: the editorial and the market analysis raise precisely these component-specific gaps.
Question 2: The figure of 247.87 million tonnes for the year 2024-25 relates to what in the Indian context?
(a) India's total milk production
(b) Only butter exports
(c) The national milk-fat deficit
(d) The average milk price of all farmers
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
PIB states it as the estimate of total milk production for 2024-25. It is not a figure for exports, a fat deficit or prices.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-III - animal husbandry, agricultural economy, agro-processing and pricesMains Practice Question
"Dairy-sector policy cannot remain limited to raising total production; the composition of milk, product-specific demand and farmer incentives are also important." Discuss. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: India's official series shows growth in milk production, while the recent market discussion draws attention to the separate balance of fat and other components.
Main Body: Component-based view: total volume, fat and SNF are distinct measures; the markets for butter/ghee and SMP are not alike. Signals to the farmer: transparent payment by quality and components can shape production decisions. Productivity and cost: strengthening fodder, animal health, breeding and collection systems is necessary for supply stability. Processing balance: while meeting the demand for one component, a plan for the stocks and sale of the other by-product is also needed. Better data: the level, source, period and wholesale/retail distinction of prices should be clear; do not mistake production growth for fat percentage.
Conclusion: By attending to composition and market balance alongside quantity, both farmer income and consumer availability can be better assessed.
November 2026
Dibang Project: Demands of Downstream Communities and the Multipurpose Balance
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Question 1: With reference to the Dibang Multipurpose Project, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is associated with the Dibang river in Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 2: Its planned capacity is 2,880 MW.
Statement 3: The project's purpose is only power generation, not flood moderation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statement 1 is correct: the project is on the Dibang river in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Statement 2 is correct: the planned capacity is 2,880 MW.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: PIB lists flood moderation among the main objectives besides power generation.
Question 2: From the news of a community demanding project-affected family status, which conclusion is appropriate?
(a) Every family has automatically received legal status and compensation.
(b) The government has cancelled the project.
(c) A demand on status and rehabilitation has been raised; acceptance will be tested through a separate official decision.
(d) A final conclusion on technical risk has already emerged.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
The Hindu's report describes demands and a warning. A demand being raised is not the same as government acceptance, cancellation of the project or a settled technical conclusion.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-III - energy, environment and disaster management
Mains: GS-II - federal cooperation and public participationMains Practice Question
"The acceptability of large river projects depends beyond the construction site, on the safety and participation of downstream people." Discuss with reference to the Dibang project. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: The Dibang project is a multipurpose scheme for power generation and flood moderation. The demands of downstream communities draw attention to how its benefits and risks are distributed.
Main Body: Domain of effects: a river's flow is not bound by administrative boundaries; the assessment should include the side of those living downstream. Information and hearing: public hearings, understandable risk information and answers to technical questions can build trust. Rehabilitation and eligibility: test the demand for PAF status against the actual rules and evidence of policy; treating a demand as acceptance is wrong. Safety and accountability: responsibilities for protective works, monitoring, grievances and emergency preparedness should be clear. Federal cooperation: dialogue between Arunachal Pradesh and Assam can connect the distinct concerns of the construction area and the downstream.
Conclusion: Rather than treating energy benefits and community safety as opposite poles, they should be joined through transparent assessment, participation and accountable implementation.
November 2026
Maharashtra UCC Committee: Deliberations Begin, Suggestions Invited Until 15 November
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Question 1: With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. Article 44 mentions a uniform civil code.
II. Article 37 makes the provisions of Part IV enforceable by courts.
III. Article 37 describes the Directive Principles as fundamental in the governance of the country.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
- Statements I and III are correct.
- Statement II is incorrect: Article 37 says the provisions are not enforceable by any court, while also describing them as fundamental in governance and making it the State's duty to apply them in making laws.
Question 2: What does the process of seeking public suggestions on Maharashtra's official UCC committee portal signify?
(a) A UCC Act has automatically come into force.
(b) The committee is deliberating on the need and the outline of a possible law, and reviewing current laws.
(c) All personal civil laws have been immediately repealed.
(d) Article 44 has become a fundamental right.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
The portal describes the committee's work of need-assessment, review of current laws and suggesting an outline of a possible law. Seeking suggestions does not establish that any Act has come into force or that existing laws stand repealed.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - Constitution, Directive Principles, law-making process and social justiceMains Practice Question
"In the policy debate on a Uniform Civil Code, the constitutional goal and an inclusive law-making process cannot be separated." Discuss.
Answer Outline
Introduction: Article 44 sets the constitutional goal of a uniform civil code. The current stage of a committee and public consultation in Maharashtra draws attention to the process of converting that goal into law.
Main Body: Constitutional position: read with Article 37, the Directive Principles are fundamental in governance but not directly enforceable by courts. Evidence and review: the committee must assess the need and review the current personal civil laws; its findings should emerge from the review rather than a predetermined outcome. Participation: hearing affected individuals, communities and organisations can aid policy acceptance and identify practical shortcomings. The test of equality: examine real impact on gender justice and access to remedies, not merely identical wording. Implementation: draft, legislative approval, the date of coming into force and administrative preparation are distinct stages; do not treat a political announcement as completion of all stages.
Conclusion: Respect for the constitutional goal and open consultation are complementary. The final proposal should be judged on its actual text, its impact on rights and the arrangement for implementation.
November 2026
DGTR's Suo-Motu Probe: Aluminium Extrusions from China, Malaysia, Vietnam and Thailand
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Question 1: Consider the following statements about the DGTR's aluminium-extrusion notification of 9 November 2026:
I. The investigation covers China, Malaysia, Vietnam and Thailand.
II. The notification initiates an investigation; it does not itself impose a new duty.
III. The probe being "suo-motu" proves that no petition was received from industry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statements I and II are correct.
- Statement III is incorrect: the notification explicitly mentions petitions from ALEMAI and member producers. The investigation was initiated suo-motu under Rule 5(4) on the basis of the available information.
Question 2: How should the prima facie evidence available at the initiation of an anti-dumping investigation be understood?
(a) Automatic fixation of the final duty rate
(b) A general ban on all imports
(c) A basis for further examination of the allegations, not a final finding
(d) The end of interested parties' right to respond
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c)
The DGTR has initiated an examination of the alleged dumping's existence, degree and effect, and of injury to domestic industry and the causal link. Initiation is not the same as the allegations being finally proven or a duty being imposed.
Mains Practice Question
"The credibility of trade remedies depends both on hearing domestic industry's complaint and on not treating an allegation as a final finding." Discuss in the context of anti-dumping investigations.
Answer Outline
Introduction: An anti-dumping investigation aims at an evidence-based review of alleged dumping, injury and causal link. This distinction matters in the November 2026 aluminium-extrusion investigation.
Main Body: Access for small industries - information from scattered MSME producers too can reach the authority; in this case the suo-motu route under Rule 5(4) was used. The test of evidence - prima facie evidence may suffice for initiation, but final findings require examination of facts. Clarity of product scope - do not treat all aluminium imports alike; identifying the products and countries concerned is essential. Participation of interested parties - exporters, importers and users should also be able to give information alongside domestic producers; this allows examination of alternative explanations of injury and causation. Balance in policy - while remedying real injury to domestic industry, the position of industries using imported inputs must also be considered.
Conclusion: Without a fair process, it would be wrong to turn an investigation into a protectionist conclusion. Trade remedies must rest on the correct product scope, reliable data and proof of injury.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-III - economy, foreign trade, industry
Prelims: trade-remedy institutions and processNovember 2026
India-US Counter-Narcotics Talks: The Executive Working Group Meeting in New Delhi
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Question 1: Consider the following statements about the second India-US Drug Policy Executive Working Group meeting of November 2026:
I. The meeting was held in New Delhi.
II. The Indian host agency was the NCB.
III. Demand reduction was kept outside the priorities of cooperation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a)
- Statements I and II are correct: the official statement records the 2-3 November New Delhi meeting and the NCB's hosting.
- Statement III is incorrect: demand reduction was an explicit priority.
Question 2: In the official statement, the network-centred approach refers to:
(a) Only changing the packing of seized drugs
(b) Striking the entire trafficking network, including financiers, suppliers, associates and the logistics apparatus
(c) Stopping all legitimate pharmaceutical trade
(d) Completely separating public health from enforcement
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b)
The statement speaks of targeting the whole trafficking apparatus. A general halt to legitimate pharmaceutical trade, or separating demand reduction, is not the announced approach.
Mains Practice Question
"Seizures alone are not enough against illicit drug trafficking; cooperation that connects financial networks, chemical supply and public health is essential." Discuss in the context of India-US cooperation.
Answer Outline
Introduction: Drug trafficking is a problem of supply, finance and distribution spread across borders. The November 2026 India-US meeting prioritised demand reduction and supply-chain security alongside enforcement.
Main Body: Network-centred investigation - identify financiers, suppliers, associates and the logistics apparatus beyond consignments; the number of seizures alone is not a complete test of success. International cooperation - timely intelligence and coordinated action can help trace links spread across countries. Precursor control - identifying suspicious diversion and regulatory cooperation without obstructing legitimate industry. Public health - keeping demand reduction, prevention and rehabilitation together creates a path of help for affected people. Accountability - do not treat a meeting or announced priorities as results; progress should be judged by investigation outcomes, reduced supply-chain risk and access to health services.
Conclusion: Cross-border cooperation will be useful only when information-sharing turns into real investigation and protection of legitimate supply, and health support is strengthened alongside enforcement.
Syllabus mapping:
Mains: GS-II - international relations and health
Mains: GS-III - internal security and organised crimeIf Bangladesh's stitching stops: the garment crisis and India's opportunity
Read the full article →November 2026
Medical Device PLI: From Assembly to Component Manufacturing
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Consider the following statements about the 10 November announcement on medical-device PLI:
1. The minimum sales threshold for incentives has been removed.
2. The minimum investment requirement has been abolished completely.
3. The incentive rates are not the same across all four target segments.
Which statements are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The minimum sales threshold has been removed, while the investment requirement has been reduced. Rates differ by segment.
Mains Practice Question
What criteria should be used to assess incentive policy for moving from domestic assembly to deeper manufacturing of medical devices? (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Distinguish assembly from component manufacturing.
Main Body: Simpler eligibility and opportunities for small industries; quality and patient safety; technological capability and supply chains; separate measures of production, exports and incentive payments.
Conclusion: Long-term competitiveness.
November 2026
Odisha's Millet Experience: Diversity and Markets Alongside Production
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With reference to the 10 November millet event in Odisha:
1. A production target of 8 lakh metric tonnes was put forward for 2047.
2. The ragi procurement target for 2025-26 is also 8 lakh metric tonnes.
3. A millet centre of excellence at OUAT was proposed.
Which statements are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The ragi procurement target for 2025-26 is 8 lakh quintals, not metric tonnes. The centre of excellence is proposed.
Mains Practice Question
Why must production expansion, local diversity, processing and markets be connected in millet-based agricultural transformation? Explain with reference to Odisha. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Expansion of area versus actual benefits.
Main Body: Local varieties; the role of procurement; FPOs and women's groups; machinery, research and markets; adaptation by state.
Conclusion: Distinguish targets from achievements.
November 2026
SC/ST Enterprises in Public Procurement: From Targets to Participation
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With reference to the Public Procurement Policy:
1. The 4% sub-target for SC/ST MSEs is within the overall 25% MSE target.
2. The 4% means only 1% of total annual procurement.
3. This sub-target is equivalent to a separate 4% reservation in every tender.
Which statement is correct?(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The 4% is a sub-target based on total annual procurement, not 4% of 25%. The official FAQ does not describe it as a reservation in a particular tender.
Mains Practice Question
Why are percentage targets alone insufficient for social inclusion in public procurement? Discuss with reference to SC/ST-owned MSEs. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The policy's annual basis.
Main Body: Registration and access to information; vendor development and product matching; quality and fair competition; procurement growth versus target compliance.
Conclusion: Institutional cooperation.
November 2026
First Diwali of a Naxal-free India: the Prime Minister with jawans in Bastar
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Question 1. "The victory over Left-Wing Extremism in India is the outcome of a combination of security and development more than of security action alone." Comment. (250 words)
Question 1. Consider the following statements:
I. CoBRA (Commando Battalion for Resolute Action) is a specialised unit of the CRPF
II. The Prime Minister celebrated Diwali 2026 with the security forces at the CoBRA Operations Base at Karanpur in Bastar
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c). Both statements are correct - CoBRA is the CRPF's specialised jungle-warfare unit, and the Prime Minister reached the CoBRA base at Karanpur on 8 November 2026 to celebrate Diwali with the forces.
Question 2. The PM-JANMAN scheme is primarily related to:
(a) Welfare of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
(b) Infrastructure development loans
(c) Skill certification
(d) Crop insurance
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a). PM-JANMAN is a scheme to take housing, water, electricity, roads and education-health facilities to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
November 2026
Congress donations shrink to a quarter in one year: signs of the sharpest fall in a decade
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Question 1. "A fall in the declared donations of political parties can signal non-transparent funding rather than transparency." Critically examine. (250 words)
Question 1. With reference to donations to political parties, consider the following statements:
I. Under Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, parties must report contributions above Rs 20,000 to the Election Commission
II. A party's membership fees and coupon collections are also included in the contribution report
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a). Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is wrong - small donations, membership fees, coupon collections and interest do not form part of the contribution report, so it is not a measure of total income.
Question 2. How much did the Congress receive in declared donations above Rs 20,000 in financial year 2025-26?
(a) Rs 130.69 crore
(b) Rs 216.34 crore
(c) Rs 517.39 crore
(d) Rs 6,074.02 crore
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a). The Congress received Rs 130.69 crore in 2025-26; Rs 517.39 crore was its 2024-25 collection and Rs 6,074.02 crore was the BJP's collection in the same year (2024-25).
November 2026
From Gir's Soil to the Dakar Podium: The Story of the Siddi Tribe
Read the full article →November 2026
Safe Harbour: The Legal Shield of Social Media Under Question
Read the full article →November 2026
First COP without the US: the real battle for climate finance in Antalya
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Question 1. 'The dual presidency of COP31 and the absence of the United States are a test of climate multilateralism.' In the light of this statement, evaluate the major challenges before the Antalya summit and India's negotiating role. (Answer in 250 words) (15 marks)
November 2026
Parliamentary Calendar: Flexibility and Accountability
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Russia-Ukraine Talks: From Ceasefire to Durable Peace
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Mains Practice Question
'A ceasefire may be necessary, but it is not sufficient for durable peace.' Analyse this statement in the context of the Russia-Ukraine conflict. Explain the role of monitoring and security arrangements in a credible peace process. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Distinguish a ceasefire as a consented halt to military activities and durable peace as a broader political-security arrangement. Do not write the upcoming talks as a concluded agreement.
Main Body: State the challenges of territorial integrity, future security and mutual distrust between the parties. Discuss clear scope, monitoring-verification, investigation of violations, humanitarian protection and the participation of affected parties. Add the importance of peace and supply security for India.
Conclusion: Suggest a phased, inclusive and verifiable process that links the halt in fighting to a durable political settlement.
November 2026
Tension in Hormuz: Ship Security and India's Interests
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Mains Practice Question
Maritime tension around Hormuz is a question not only of India's energy security but also of the safety of sailors and diplomatic balance. Discuss. (15 marks, 250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Clarify the geographical position of Hormuz and its role in the Gulf's energy route.
Main body: Add the supply, insurance, freight, sailor and environmental risks. Explain the limits of alternatives for oil and LNG, the difference between pipeline capacity and spare availability, and the need for independent confirmation of claims. Add the importance of maritime transit and crisis communication.
Conclusion: Suggest a balanced policy based on diverse supply, limited-period reserves, safe maritime movement and dialogue.
November 2026
Beyond Ransomware: The Cyber Threat to the Cold Chain
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Mains Practice Question
Cyber attacks on industrial control systems can turn digital risk into a physical-safety crisis. Discuss this statement in the context of the cold chain, and explain the difference between ransomware and malicious changes in operations. (Answer in 150 words) | 10 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: Explain the cold chain as the storage and transport arrangement for temperature-sensitive products. Mention that digital control increases both convenience and new dependence.
Main_Body: Bring out the difference between ransomware (blocking access for ransom) and OT attacks (changing process settings). Write about wrong temperatures, the loss of monitoring, damage to material and risks to health and safety. Explain the role of limiting internet exposure, IT-OT segmentation, strong authentication, updates, safe limits, backups and incident response. In the Indian context, add the distinct roles of CERT-In and NCIIPC.
Conclusion: Make cyber security, process safety and the continuity of essential services a joint responsibility; keep the risks described in the advisory separate from proven damage in any incident.
November 2026
Marine Heatwave: From Warm Water to Coastal Livelihoods
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Mains Practice Question
How are marine heatwaves different from long-term ocean warming? Discuss their effects on India's coastal ecology and livelihoods and the adaptation measures needed. (15 marks, 250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: define persistence of temperature above the local seasonal range; it is not just one hot day.
Main Body: explain heat exchange, mixing and currents. Connect coral bleaching, fish habitat, income and the last-mile reach of warnings. Keep heat warnings and swell surges separate.
Conclusion: give a combined view of ocean observation, local ecosystem protection and emission reduction.
November 2026
Why Democratic Socialism Is Being Discussed in the United States
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Mains Practice Questions
Distinguish democratic socialism from social democracy. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
Social democracy retains capitalism while using regulation, taxation and welfare to reduce inequality.
Main Body:
Its parties have governed several European countries. Democratic socialism seeks democratic control over the economy, including collective ownership in energy and transport. Both accept democratic and electoral change. One reforms capitalism; the other seeks to move beyond it.
Conclusion:
In the source's US account, DSA is a current within the Democratic Party, not a separate party.
Critically assess the causes of the American left's growing influence and its policy limitations. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
The Democratic midterm victory in 2026 brought the left-wing current into focus.
Main Body:
Discuss inflation and performance grievances, inequality amid aggregate growth and organised urban campaigning. Examine filibusters, vetoes, Democratic disagreement and sharply conflicting government/DSA cost assumptions.
Conclusion:
City and state influence is more feasible. National change needs transparent costing and wider political agreement.
November 2026
Deepfakes and Political Satire: Protecting Dignity
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Mains Practice Questions
Review the judicial approach to balancing political satire and personal dignity in the deepfake era. (150 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
The recent order accepts criticism and satire as democratic practices but denies that label's protection to AI content injuring dignity.
Main Body:
Public figures should tolerate greater scrutiny, but retain dignity. Discuss the balance between Article 19(1)(a), Article 19(2) restrictions and Article 21.
Conclusion:
Emphasise the interim nature of the order, not a final judgment.
Suggest legal and technical measures to regulate AI-generated content. (150 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
Define synthetic content, penalties for misuse and complaint deadlines.
Main Body:
Discuss labelling, provenance identification and prompt platform removal systems.
Conclusion:
Political codes and citizen literacy should protect expression and dignity together.
November 2026
From the Northeast to South India: the Distinct Corridors of Migration
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Mains Examination Practice Question
Analyse the reasons for migration from the Northeast to South India and the challenges faced by migrant workers. (150 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: according to a survey, every study district of the Northeast has its own migration corridor to South India.
Main Body: the reasons include push factors like the shortage of work in the village, small landholdings and debt, and pull factors like better jobs, wages and living conditions. The challenges: dependence on networks, limited income, long working hours, the lack of paid leave and families' dependence on remittances.
Conclusion: policy therefore needs attention to both safe migration and local employment.
What role can local livelihoods play in making migration "a choice rather than a compulsion"? (150 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: when a village has alternative sources of income, families can turn migration from a compulsion into a means of additional income.
Main Body: local enterprises, skill training, market linkages and support activities for small farmers can raise income. This will reduce the pressure that debt and the shortage of land create.
Conclusion: at the same time, registration and protection of labour rights are essential for those who do migrate.
November 2026
Ten Years of Demonetisation: The Picture of Cash and Digital Payments
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Mains Practice Question
Ten years after demonetisation, relying only on the return of currency or the growth of digital payments is not enough for its evaluation. Discuss in the context of economic evidence and social cost. (15 marks, 250 words)
Answer Outline
In the introduction: set out the question of evaluation from the context of the 2016 withdrawal of legal tender status and the tenth anniversary.
In the main body: explain the difference between the return of notes and tax compliance, between the stock of banknotes and the flow of UPI, between detected fake notes and actual counterfeiting, and between correlation and cause. Add the lesson of the drug-sales study, its limit and the cost to cash-dependent groups.
In the conclusion: emphasise objective-specific indicators, comparable data, counterfactual evaluation and inclusive options for payment.
November 2026
Bhakra-Beas Dispute: Settlement of Power Arrears
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Mains Practice Question
In inter-state resource disputes, effective implementation can be harder than declaring the right. Explain the role of cooperative federalism with reference to the Bhakra-Beas power dispute. (15 marks, 250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: give the context of Article 131 and the implementation dispute that remained after the 2011 entitlement.
Main Body: explain the connection of energy arrears, capital cost adjustment, charges, phased supply and shared records.
Conclusion: suggest clear accounting, regular review and reasoned inter-state coordination.
November 2026
Preventive Detention: the Test of Security and Liberty
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Mains Examination Practice Question
Procedural safeguards in the power of preventive detention are not mere formalities. Discuss with reference to individual liberty, public order and judicial review. (15 marks, 250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: write the difference between preventive detention and an ordinary criminal prosecution.
Main Body: explain Article 22(5), the supply of grounds, an effective representation, the proximate link, updated evidence and the sufficiency of the ordinary law.
Conclusion: conclude on the reasoned, limited and accountable use of extraordinary power.
November 2026
The Gokul Dairy Dispute: The Balance Between Cooperative Autonomy and Government Oversight
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Mains Practice Question
How can a balance be created between public accountability and member control in cooperatives receiving government assistance? Discuss with reference to the Gokul dispute. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: State the member-centred nature of a cooperative.
Main Body: Analyse the tensions of quorum-majority, nomination, oversight and mandate; do not turn a political claim into a proven fact.
Conclusion: Offer a solution based on pre-set rules, audits, control of conflicts of interest and producer interests.
November 2026
India's Global Role: Not the Label of Power, but the Question of Capacity
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For an effective role for India in the changing global order, domestic capacity and issue-based partnerships matter more than power labels. Comment. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: State the multidimensional nature of global role and power.
Main Body: Give a balanced analysis of domestic capacity, strategic autonomy, partnerships and the priorities of developing countries.
Conclusion: Emphasise effective and durable outcomes rather than a claim to a label.
November 2026
Security Testing of AI: From a Model's Answer to an Agent's Action
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Mains Practice Question
Why does the cyber security challenge from the use of AI agents go beyond the answers of models? Explain the role of risk-based audits. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Explain the difference between a model and a tool-enabled agent.
Main Body: Explain prompt injection, permissions, data disclosure, logs, human review and testing of restoration.
Conclusion: Conclude on testing in proportion to the impact of use and on responsible deployment.
November 2026
Digital Census: Data Quality Beyond Faster Monitoring
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Mains Practice Question
What measures are needed to ensure reliability and inclusion alongside technical efficiency in a digital Census? Discuss. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
Explain the Census's role in planning.
Main Body:
Discuss coverage, completeness, consistency, privacy, training and independent verification. Distinguish monitoring from arbitrary alteration of data.
Conclusion:
Present technology as a means to improve quality and public trust.
November 2026
The MDR Debate on UPI: Who Should Bear the Cost of Payments?
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Mains Practice Question
How can a balance be made between the low user cost of digital payments and the financial sustainability of the payment system? Discuss in the context of UPI. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Give a brief introduction to the usefulness of UPI and to MDR.
Main Body: Analyse inclusion, small merchants, operating cost, security and support policy. Keep the difference between P2M and P2P, and between a proposed and an applied rate.
Conclusion: State the need for a transparent, targeted and outcome-based arrangement of charges and support.
November 2026
Review of the UGC Equity Regulations: Equal Protection and a Trustworthy Process
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Mains Practice Question
How can a balance be made between special protection and a fair complaint process to prevent discrimination in higher educational institutions? Discuss. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: State the need for equal opportunity and equity in higher education.
Main Body: Discuss historical deprivation, a clear definition, a hearing for all stakeholders, confidentiality and independent redress. Do not describe the pending judicial question as a final decision.
Conclusion: Keep constitutional equality and a trustworthy institutional process together.
November 2026
The Real Clock of Custody: The 24-Hour Constitutional Safeguard
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Zero FIR: The Distance from Filing a Complaint to Justice
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Mains Practice Question
Zero FIR is an important step towards access to justice, but merely registering a complaint is not a guarantee of victim-centred justice. Discuss. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Introduce the facility of an FIR independent of territorial jurisdiction and Section 173.
Main Body: State the distance from complaint to investigation and the challenges of cost, confidentiality, safety and support. Keep the distinction between Zero FIR and e-FIR.
Conclusion: Suggest a coordinated, accessible and respectful process along with a fair investigation.
November 2026
Monetisation of Surplus CPSE Land: From Proposal to Real Value
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Mains Practice Question
Monetisation of the non-core assets of public enterprises is an opportunity to raise economic resources, but it requires strong institutional safeguards. Discuss. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Clarify the meaning of non-core asset and monetisation.
Main Body: Explain the role of NLMC and the inter-ministerial arrangement, valuation, competition, legal due diligence and social risks. Keep the distinction between a recommendation and an actual receipt.
Conclusion: Make productive use and long-term public interest, along with revenue, the benchmarks of success.
November 2026
After a Solar Panel's Life Ends: Recycling and Accountability
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Mains Practice Question
Which gaps in solar waste management need to be removed to make India's solar energy expansion sustainable? Discuss in the context of the existing regulatory framework. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: State the relation between solar capacity and the whole life cycle of equipment.
Main Body: Write the challenges of collection, storage, technology, cost and data. Make clear the difference between the special provisions for solar waste in the e-waste rules and the general recycling targets.
Conclusion: Link producer responsibility, safe processing and material recovery with energy policy.
November 2026
Children's Digital Safety: Platform Responsibility and Accountability
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Mains Practice Question
How can platform accountability for children's online safety be linked with safe design, privacy and effective grievance redressal? (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: State the digital risks facing children and the role of platforms.
Main Body: Discuss safe design, scrutiny of recommendation systems, limited data collection, time-bound remedy and appeal.
Conclusion: Suggest a multi-stakeholder approach based on the child's dignity and rights.
November 2026
Hupari's Women Silver Artisans: Recognition of Labour and Economic Rights
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Mains Practice Question
Why does the economic contribution of home-based women artisans often remain invisible? Using the example of Hupari, suggest measures to strengthen their economic rights. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: clarify the difference between work for the home and work for the market.
Main Body: write the problems of piece-rate, control over income, the value chain, representation and safety; do not present GI as a guarantee of income.
Conclusion: conclude on securing the producer's rights along with the product's identity.
November 2026
AI in Government Communication: The Test of Clear Information and Accountability
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Mains Practice Question
The use of artificial intelligence in government communication can both increase transparency and make vagueness widespread. Discuss in the context of responsible administration. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Distinguish between AI assistance and institutional responsibility.
Main Body: Explain the need for sources, data, stages of decision-making, simple language and human review. Present both benefits and risks.
Conclusion: Along with technical efficiency, make citizens' understanding and accountability the final test.
November 2026
Damage That Outlasts War: Gaza's Environment and International Law
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Mains Practice Question
The environmental impacts of armed conflict give rise to long-term humanitarian crises. Discuss in the context of international law and post-conflict restoration. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Link the environmental damage of war to public health and livelihoods.
Main Body: Effects on water, soil, rubble and resources; the distinction, proportionality and precaution of humanitarian law; explain the nature of the 2022 ILC principles. Do not turn the old assessment into a current count.
Conclusion: Write the need for a combined framework of relief, scientific clean-up and local participation.
November 2026
The Safety of Medical Devices: Adverse Event Figures and the Patient's Trust
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Mains Practice Question
How can a balance be made between commercial confidentiality and the patient's safety in monitoring the adverse events of medical devices? Discuss with reference to India's regulatory system. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Connect device safety with the quality of treatment and the citizen's right to health.
Main Body: State the separate roles of MvPI, IPC and CDSCO. Discuss under-reporting, uncertainty of cause and the lack of public data. Explain the justification of confidentiality and the balance with public interest; do not treat a report as proven device fault.
Conclusion: Place the need for identity-protected transparency, time-bound investigation and risk-based regulation.
November 2026
Changes in the Immigration Exemption Order: Passport, Visa and Conditions for Continued Stay
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Question 1. Which statement is correct for citizens of Nepal/Bhutan under the order?
(a) For travel from every third country, an identity document alone is sufficient.
(b) The sub-clause concerning third places imposes a passport condition; the sub-clause concerning journeys beginning from/transiting China, Macau, Hong Kong or Pakistan imposes a condition of both passport and visa.
(c) In every situation, a visa alone is sufficient.
(d) There is no requirement to prove identity.
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) The two sub-clauses of paragraph 3(1)(b) of the Gazette are distinct. Do not treat travel from all third places and travel from/transit through the four specified places as carrying the same condition.
Question 2. Consider these statements about the eligible category of the six specified communities:
Statement 1: The order's entry cut-off is 31 December 2024.
Statement 2: An appropriate-category visa is needed for continued stay in India.
Statement 3: This automatically confers Indian citizenship.
Choose the correct statements.
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) The entry deadline applies along with the specified country, community and persecution-related conditions. The visa condition is explicit, while there is no provision granting citizenship automatically.
November 2026
Rising Individual Investment Abroad: LRS, Diversification and the Rupee Question
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Mains Practice Question
Growing overseas investment by individuals can be both an opportunity for financial diversification and a challenge for external stability. Discuss in the context of India. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Explain the concept of LRS and outward investment.
Main Body: Write about diversification, global opportunities, currency/market risks, foreign currency demand and the relationship with other capital flows. Among measures, include transparent data, investor education, appropriate disclosure and compliance with rules.
Conclusion: Suggest a balance between legitimate global participation and stability.
November 2026
Belagavi Sugarcane Agreement: Profit-Sharing and the Question of Price Security
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Mains Practice Question
To what extent can profit-sharing between sugarcane farmers and sugar mills reduce price disputes? Discuss with reference to statutory price security, transparency and payment risk. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: state the perishable nature of sugarcane and the mutual dependence of mill and farmer.
Main Body: FRP as the security base; the possibility of a market-linked additional share; unequal bargaining; the definition of cost/profit and the risk of delayed payment. Remedies: a written formula, independent audit, transparent weighing and recovery-rate testing, time-bound payment and grievance redress.
Conclusion: present legal security and additional income as complementary.
November 2026
Assam's Polygamy Decision: Service Discipline and Gender Justice
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Mains Practice Question
'Reform of conduct in public service should be assessed not only by the severity of the penalty but also by the clarity of the rule and fairness of procedure.' Discuss with reference to Assam's recent decision on polygamy. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Bring out the connection between gender justice and the accountability of public service.
Main Body: Explain the difference between service conduct and general marriage law, equality, the interests of the wife and children, and the need for departmental procedure. Keep the distinction between approval and notification.
Conclusion: Suggest clear rules, legal aid and fair application as a combined reform.
October 2026
BPaL Patent Decision: The Path to a Cheaper TB Medicine
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Mains Practice Question
'The relationship between patent protection and public health is not merely a conflict of innovation versus cheap medicine.' Examine in the context of the patent decision related to BPaL. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Clarify the importance of both encouraging drug innovation and the patient's access to treatment.
Main Body: Explain novelty, inventive step, pre-grant opposition and application-specific decisions. Keep the removal of a patent barrier distinct from regulatory approval, quality, price and supply. Add diagnosis and patient support.
Conclusion: Suggest strengthening together a transparent patent scrutiny and a health system that delivers treatment to the patient.
November 2026
Sharp Jump in India's West Asian LPG Imports Through 'Ship-to-Ship' Transfers Around Hormuz
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Mains Practice Question
"The concentration of India's LPG supply chain on a few straits increases energy-security risk." Discuss in the context of recent West Asian events. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Give a brief context of India's import-dependent LPG supply and the importance of West Asian routes.
Main Body: Explain the risks created by concentration on narrow sea lanes such as Hormuz. Present ship-to-ship transfer (STS) as an adaptation that keeps supply going, but distinguish it from a permanent solution to risk. Examine the role of source diversification, strategic storage, PNG and alternative fuels, and domestic production.
Conclusion: Suggest the direction of energy security by carrying immediate supply resilience and long-term source and fuel diversification together.
November 2026
Amazon Forests: Drought Intensifies the Shift from Carbon Sink to Carbon Source
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Mains Practice Question
"The Amazon rainforest's movement from a carbon sink towards a carbon source is driven more by forest degradation and climate feedback than by deforestation alone." Examine this statement in light of the recent study and suggest its implications for India's forest conservation and climate goals. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
Present the study's central finding: human activities cause emissions and drought intensifies their effects.
Main Body:
Distinguish degradation from deforestation. Discuss El Niño, rainfall, climate feedback and tipping-point risks. Include the COP debate on carbon-sink accounting. Explain implications for REDD+, India's forest-cover goals, and coordinated biodiversity and climate policy.
Conclusion:
Assess conservation through forest condition and carbon balance, rather than area alone.
November 2026
BRICS Carbon Market Partnership: From Fragmented Markets to Coordinated Carbon Trading
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Mains Practice Question
"The BRICS carbon-market partnership can increase the developing countries' share in global climate governance." Comment, including the opportunities and the obstacles. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: introduce the concept of a carbon market and the coordination aim of the BRICS partnership.
Main Body: explain the opportunities of standardisation, a shared response to CBAM and climate finance along with BRICS's position. Present the obstacles of uneven maturity of member countries' markets and the rules of Article 6. Make clear the sequence of strengthening measurement, reporting and verification (MRV) and linking markets only after that.
Conclusion: suggest judging the partnership's success by credible MRV and phased coordination rather than by declarations.
November 2026
Cess/Surcharge on Sales Tax: Constitution Bench Ruling on the Limit of 'Tax on Tax'
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Beyond the 'Top 2% Scientist' Tag: What the Real Test of Research Evaluation Should Be
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Mains Practice Question
"Citation-based 'top scientist' lists can create more distortion than incentive." Comment, and suggest a balanced research-evaluation framework for India. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Introduce the nature of citation-based scientist lists and their use in research evaluation.
Main Body: Present the benefits of standardisation and visibility alongside distortions such as citation games and the neglect of applied research. Discuss a composite framework that ties peer review, real-world impact, and checks of research integrity, instead of rank alone.
Conclusion: Treat the index as an aid to evaluation, not as the sole final proof of research quality.
November 2026
Reserved Seats for Women in Parliament and Assemblies: The 2026 Debate and the Unfinished Road
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Mains Practice Question
"Linking women's reservation with delimitation complicates political consensus." Discuss with reference to the Bill's failure in 2026. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: begin the debate on the reservation-delimitation link with reference to the 2023 law and the 2026 Bill described in the article.
Main Body: after the logic of the implementation condition, present the difficulties linked to the north-south representational balance, the census delay and party arithmetic. Examine the remedies of reservation first and delimitation later, the balance of states' seats and all-party consensus. Do not state any one option as the settled decision.
Conclusion: state the need for clear, broad political consensus on the goal of women's representation and the federal representational balance.
November 2026
The LTCG Tax Cut Debate for Foreign Investors: Will Capital Flows Return?
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Mains Practice Question
"A tax cut is not a sufficient instrument for attracting capital flows." Discuss in the light of the ongoing debate on LTCG for FPIs. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Give the context of foreign portfolio investment outflows and the debate on cutting the LTCG tax.
Main Body: Present the arguments linked to tax parity and pressure on the rupee. Then examine the counter-arguments of valuation, earnings growth, revenue, and tax parity. Compare alternative measures such as ease of investing, fixed-income capital, bond index inclusion, and stable tax administration.
Conclusion: Suggest evaluating the tax rate not as a stand-alone remedy but together with the broader investment environment and its fiscal effect.
November 2026
UN Commission of Inquiry Report: War Crimes and Crimes Against Humanity in the Occupied Palestinian Territory
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Mains Practice Question
"Reports of UN commissions of inquiry are not binding, yet they influence international behaviour." Comment with reference to the recent OPT report. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Introduce the nature of a UN commission of inquiry and the non-binding character of its report.
Main Body: Present the OPT report's main findings and the figures of 254 and 34,176 given in the article, along with their relevant categories and limits. Explain influence through evidence collection, the ICJ/ICC, diplomatic pressure and collective reputation. Include the limits of non-bindingness, allegations of politicisation and dependence on member States. Add the context of India's balanced position and support for a bilateral solution.
Conclusion: Conclude on the combined role of evidence, accountability and diplomatic process, keeping the distinction between legal bindingness and practical influence.
November 2026
Right to Protest versus Indefinite Occupation of a Place: Supreme Court Draws the Line
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Mains Practice Question
"The right to protest is the soul of democracy, but indefinite occupation snatches that very right from others." Analyse in the light of the Supreme Court's recent observations. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: state the importance of peaceful protest and democratic dissent in the context of Article 19.
Main Body: present the Court's reasoning on designated place and duration, equal public access and the livelihood of daily-wage workers. On the other side, present the concerns that a shortage of protest sites shrinks effective dissent, and the possible misuse of surveillance and Section 163. Suggest a path of balance through a clear SOP, time limits, prior notice and judicial review.
Conclusion: support a proportionate arrangement without making the protection of others' rights the basis for ending the effective space of peaceful dissent.
November 2026
Agnipath's New Path: Regular Recruitment After a Second Term
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Mains Practice Question
"The Cabinet's recent decision is an answer to the core criticism of the Agnipath scheme." Examine this statement critically. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: the Agnipath scheme (2022) and the gist of the Cabinet decision of 4 November 2026 - a second term of two years for the 75% Agniveers and, after it, a path of regular recruitment for all.
Main Body: the core criticism: uncertainty about the future of the 75%, absence of pension; how the decision answers it: a willingness-based second term, higher remuneration, increased Seva Nidhi, seniority benefit, a door to permanent service for all; support from the positive four-year evaluation. Counterpoints/limits: transparency of the selection criteria and service conditions is essential; how much of the age-profile purpose will survive; the long-term pension burden; the real percentage depends on implementation.
Conclusion: the decision is a broad course correction in the right direction; success now lies in detailed rules and transparent implementation.
November 2026
Naying Project on the Siyom: Forest Panel Recommends In-Principle Clearance; Not the Same as the Siang SUMP
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Mains Practice Question
Several hydroelectric projects in one river basin should not be assessed only on the basis of their individual power capacity. Discuss with reference to the Siang-Siyom region. (15 marks, 250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Clarify the concepts of a tributary and a basin.
Main Body: Give the difference between Naying and SUMP, the stages of clearances, cumulative impact, tribal livelihoods, and the balance of energy and disaster risk.
Conclusion: Emphasise basin-level study, local dialogue and independent monitoring.
November 2026
Critical Minerals and Energy Storage: Two Cabinet Approvals
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Mains Practice Question
'For energy security, the availability of mineral resources is not enough; domestic capacity for processing and storage is also necessary.' Discuss with reference to the recent Cabinet decisions. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Bring out the mineral and power-system dependencies of the energy transition.
Main Body: Explain the mining-processing difference, the lithium-nickel support, the storage structure of VGF and the domestic content condition. Add the limits of technology, raw material, environment and project implementation.
Conclusion: Link government support to measurable outcomes such as capacity becoming operational, quality and reliable affordable electricity.
November 2026
P4M: A Quiet Coalition for Multilateralism - A New Initiative from the UNGA Stage, Challenges and the Road Ahead
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Mains Practice Question
"In an era of pressure on multilateralism, coalitions like P4M are rays of hope, but success will be decided by implementation, not declaration." Comment. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Amid the crisis of multilateralism, a small and diverse coalition like P4M can give direction to reform, but without a concrete action plan a declaration remains limited.
Main Body: Context: America's disowning of the rules-based order, violations by other powers; P4M's strengths: mixed North-South membership, reform-oriented language; challenges: cheap talk, differentiation from China's Global Initiatives, the absence of public outreach; possibility: new idea-frameworks like deep ecology; India's role.
Conclusion: Multilateralism's credibility will return only through cost-sharing and clarity of principles - P4M has direction; now it needs momentum.
November 2026
NMC's Proposal: Rank-Based System in Place of Percentile for PG and Super-Speciality Admissions
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Mains Practice Question
"The shift from a percentile to a rank-based system is a procedural reform, not a reform of standards." Critically examine with reference to the NMC's proposal. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: A rank-based system can speed up counselling, but the question of the eligibility standard remains unanswered.
Main Body: The current system: the competent authority's permission for lowering the percentile, and delays; the proposal: rank only, time-bound counselling; the criticism: eligibility down to negative marks, the absence of a zero cut-off, the option of scrapping seats vacant for years; the digital ecosystem: MCC's minimal-intervention model, online seat database, audit mechanism from 2027.
Conclusion: Cutting delays is necessary, but the guarantee of quality will come only from cut-off policy and realistic seat management.
November 2026
Dairy Sector Not Opened in Any FTA, GM Product Imports Never: Piyush Goyal
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Mains Practice Question
"India has struck a balance of defensive and offensive interests in its trade agreements." Examine this statement with reference to the recent statement on the dairy sector and GM imports. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: India's trade policy runs on twin goals: protecting sensitive sectors (dairy, GM, agriculture) and securing market access for competitive ones.
Main Body: Defensive interests - not opening dairy in any FTA, the ban on GM imports, religious sensitivity (rennet/certification), protecting small and marginal farmers; offensive interests - preferential access in textiles, pharma, agriculture, gems & jewellery; subsidised imports versus domestic prices; the $1 trillion export target and 14% growth; self-reliance (TBM, rare earths).
Conclusion: The success of agreements lies in this balance - openness pays only when the farmer, the fisher and the MSME stay protected.
November 2026
Technological Sovereignty Is True Self-Reliance: The Defence Minister's Four-Pillar Mantra at the Delhi Defence Dialogue 2026
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Mains Practice Question
"Technological sovereignty, beyond indigenous manufacturing, is the real benchmark of India's strategic autonomy." Comment in the context of the Delhi Defence Dialogue 2026. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: In the 21st century, military power is tied to technological-industrial capability; self-reliance must extend to design, IP and life-cycle capability.
Main Body: The four components of technological sovereignty (design knowledge, manufacturing technology, IP, life-cycle capability); the mutual relationship of the four pillars - reform, self-reliance, international cooperation, exports; cheap drones versus expensive platforms: innovation, scale and replenishment; private participation (AMCA, ATAGS) and the co-development model; production-export figures (₹1.78 lakh crore; 80+ countries) and the 2029 targets.
Conclusion: The country that controls the design, IP and maintenance of its defence platforms alone retains freedom of choice in a crisis - that is strategic autonomy.
November 2026
A Snail's Small Gene, a Big Question: Myosin Decides the Shell's Coiling - the Euhadra Study
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Mains Practice Question
"Answers to small biological questions often open the door to large developmental mysteries." Comment with reference to the Euhadra snail study. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: the study of shell coiling in snails is an example of the importance of basic science.
Main Body: a tiny change in the myosin gene leads to cell-turning and then to whole-body symmetry; comparison with the fixed left-right plan in other animals; possible contribution to understanding developmental disorders in humans.
Conclusion: basic research (and citizen-science data) are the foundations of regulatory biology - applied science stands on these.
November 2026
Punjab's Drug Problem: From the Jhota Murder to Drugs Becoming the Central Issue of the 2027 Election
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Mains Practice Question
"Punjab's drug problem has now become a question not merely of law and order, but of the credibility of governance." Comment. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The Jhota murder and the 2027 electoral debate highlight the multidimensional character of Punjab's drug problem.
Main Body: Dimensions: cross-border trafficking (Golden Crescent, drones), synthetic drugs, attacks on activists; public distrust from the failure of two governments (2017-22, 2022-); Centre-State tension (CBI demand, BSF jurisdiction).
Conclusion: Remedies: technical border surveillance, de-addiction infrastructure, activist protection, police reform - and above all, accountability of political will.
November 2026
Gen-Z's Reading Choices: Global Fiction, Translated Asian Literature and Hindi Classics in the NBT Report
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Mains Practice Question
"India's young reading culture is moving towards both globalisation and cultural identity at the same time." Comment with reference to the NBT report. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The NBT report on Gen-Z reading preferences raises questions of linguistic diversity and the publishing ecosystem.
Main Body: Signs of globalisation: English fiction, demand for translated Asian literature, international prize-winning authors. Signs of identity: Hindi classics, Ambedkar, translations of the Constitution, vernacular interest. The barrier: absence of regional-language publishers, discoverability.
Conclusion: Policy direction: "books to the doorstep" through state-level fairs, encouragement of translation, budgetary support for mother-tongue publishing - for linguistic equality.
November 2026
Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana: Stalled Instalments, e-KYC Tangle and the Azad Maidan Protest
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Mains Practice Question
"Direct Benefit Transfer has increased reach to the doorstep, but process complexity creates new exclusion." Comment in the context of the Ladki Bahin protest. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The stalled instalments and e-KYC tangle in Majhi Ladki Bahin raise broader questions of welfare-scheme design.
Main Body: Achievements of DBT: removal of middlemen, time, transparency. New doors of exclusion: e-KYC, Aadhaar seeding, portal closure, digital literacy - especially for illiterate/landless women labourers. Accountability dimension: pre-election promises versus post-election fiscal cuts; the allocation-expenditure gap in the gender budget.
Conclusion: The solution: simple/assistance-based e-KYC, a time limit for grievance redress, a published account of allocation and expenditure - so that DBT becomes a means of "inclusion", not an examination.
November 2026
America's Announcement to End Aid to Israel: The Annual $4 Billion Amount, the MoU's Future and the Knesset-Election Context
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Mains Practice Question
"America's announcement to end aid to Israel is less a strategic abandonment and more domestic politics and an 'aid-to-trade' foreign policy." Comment. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Trump's announcement of 3 November 2026 - annual ~$4 billion Israel aid to stop by year-end, arms sales in place of grants - is a signal of America's "aid-to-trade" foreign-policy model.
Main Body: the essence and timing of the announcement (midterm election day). Evidence of domestic politics: the 48% "more than needed support" survey, 103 Democrats in the Massie amendment, the Michigan race, Netanyahu's own "towards zero" line. Evidence of strategic continuity: arms sales continue, F-35/missile-defence cooperation, the open line of "help if needed". Comment on the legal process of the MoU/appropriations.
Conclusion: the form of aid is changing, not the relationship; but the signal value is real for every player in West Asia.
November 2026
India's Agenda Ahead of COP31: Predictable Climate Finance, Just Transition and the Primacy of National Circumstances
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Mains Practice Question
"The gulf of 'responsibility versus adequacy' in climate finance has become the biggest implementation barrier of the COP process." Examine this statement with reference to India's priorities ahead of COP31. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: India's declared priorities ahead of COP31 (Antalya, 9-20 November 2026): predictable and public-concessional climate finance, continuity of the JTWP, voluntary GGA indicators, and unwavering adherence to CBDR-RC.
Main Body: nature of the differences: 300 billion dollars (by 2035) versus the demand of 1-1.3 trillion dollars; public-concessional versus private mobilisation; the obligation of Article 9.1 versus voluntary contributions. Arguments for India's position: CBDR-RC, debt burden, the primacy of development, the voluntary nature of JTWP/GGA. Counterpoints/limitations: developed countries' domestic constraints, the inevitability of private capital's role. Use loss and damage (Nepal flood: 4.7 billion dollars needed, 21.6 million allocated) as evidence.
Conclusion: only institutional routes such as the Climate Finance Work Programme, the voluntary character of indicators and a declared share of public-concessional finance - all three together - can tie 'responsibility' to 'adequacy'; otherwise the COP process will remain a letter of commitments.
November 2026
Cyber Hygiene: Complaints Up 24%, Cybercrime Becomes an Organised Industry, and a New Prevention Strategy
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Mains Practice Question
"Cybercrime has now become an organised international industry, which can be countered not by reaction alone but by prevention." Examine this statement in the Indian context. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Cybercrime complaints rose 24% in 2024-25; 21,900+ digital arrest cases; the JCCT/S4C framework; scam compounds moving abroad.
Main Body: Data: 24% rise, digital arrest fraud, mule accounts, migration abroad. Prevention model: blocking all four - target, means, number, account; cyber hygiene (MFA, updates, awareness); institutional: I4C+JCCT+S4C coordination, the TGCSB model, quick-freeze mechanisms; international cooperation and DPDP compliance.
Conclusion: Cyber hygiene at all three levels - technical, institutional and citizen - is the durable answer to organised cybercrime.
November 2026
The Ramlila Rally Against SIR and the Symbolic Public Impeachment of the CEC: The Battle for Electoral Trust
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Mains Practice Question
"Public trust in the electoral process is democracy's first capital." Critically review this statement in the context of the SIR dispute and the opposition campaign against the CEC. (250 words)
Answer Outline
In the introduction: 1 November 2026: the Ramlila rally and the symbolic public impeachment; allegations and counter-allegations on SIR; the constitutional process for removing the CEC in 324(5).
In the main body: introduction: the 1 November rally/public impeachment and the "vote theft" allegation. Factors of trust erosion: the appointment dispute (the committee structure of the 2023 Act), large cuts in SIR, the Form 6 dispute. The other side: the Commission's purity argument; the politicisation of criticism also reduces institutional trust. Remedies: an independent appointment mechanism, transparent SIR audit, quick judicial resolution, citizen-information campaigns.
In the conclusion: restoration of trust is possible through the conduct of both sides - transparency from the Commission and evidence-based opposition from the opposition; ultimately the Constitution's processes are the basis.
October 2026
New York's Strict AI Law: Ban on Chatbot Features Dangerous for Minors
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Mains Practice Question
"The regulation of AI companion chatbots is no longer optional." With reference to New York's new law, discuss how a policy balance can be struck between child safety and innovation. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: 28 October 2026: New York's S.9051B/A.10379C - a ban on unsafe AI chatbot features for minors, with age verification and a penalty of $25,000 per violation.
Main Body: Opening: the main points of the NY law - feature-based ban, age verification, penalty structure. Necessity: the 72%/52% usage figures, self-harm cases, emotional dependence. Counterpoint: effect on innovation, enforcement difficulty, privacy questions from age verification (the data-deletion provision is the answer). India: the limits of DPDP 2023, the need for a comprehensive AI policy.
Conclusion: The New York model shows that the target of regulation is not the technology but harmful design choices - the same lesson is worthwhile for India.
October 2026
Pressure to Lift Nagaland's Protected Area Permit: Security vs Tourism Ahead of Hornbill
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Mains Practice Question
"Security-monitoring regimes and tourism-based development in the Northeastern states can be complementary, not mutually competing." Comment with reference to Nagaland's PAP withdrawal campaign. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: 28-29 October 2026: Nagaland's pressure for complete withdrawal of PAP before Hornbill; the CM raised the issue with the Union Home Minister; the Centre assured consideration.
Main Body: Beginning: the role of PAP (1958) and ILP (1873) - historical security justification. Nagaland's case: tribal tourism spreading through the year, investment, youth entrepreneurship; a Hornbill-centred economy; the state's claim of management capacity. The security side: border sensitivity, the Home Ministry's jurisdiction, national interest paramount. Directions of solution: phased relaxation, digital permits/tracking, tourist police and capacity-building, convergence of development and security through institutional arrangements such as FNTA.
Conclusion: The future of PAP lies not in a contest between security and development but in smart monitoring and Centre-state cooperation - Hornbill 2026 will be its first test.
November 2026
Two-Child Norm: In an Era of Falling Fertility, Supreme Court Refers the Question to a Larger Bench
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Mains Practice Question
"Penal provisions tied to the two-child norm have become irrelevant in an era of falling fertility." Discuss this statement in the light of demographic change and fundamental rights. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The Supreme Court judgment of 4 November 2026: TFR 3 to 1.9; the question mark over the relevance of penal two-child laws; the question (including Javed 2003) referred to a larger bench.
Main Body: Opening: the 4 November 2026 SC judgment - TFR 3 to 1.9, replacement rate 2.1; the "fear of excessive population" foundation has collapsed. Demographic aspect: ageing population from the transition, shrinking workforce, dependency ratio; the need for penal control is over. Rights aspect: Article 21 - reproductive autonomy; the unconscionable conflict between children and democratic participation; exclusion of a class of citizens from representation through electoral disqualification; the need to review Javed (2003). Counterpoint/limitation: population-resource stress, the role-model argument in local bodies.
Conclusion: The answer to the penal two-child norm is not more penalty but a quiet winding down: policy should centre on health-education and voluntary family planning - the larger bench's decision will settle this legal question.
November 2026
Delhi Slum Rehabilitation Policy 2026: A Later Cut-off and Housing Before Displacement
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Mains Practice Question
"The unit of rehabilitation is not a flat but a family's urban life." Examine this statement in the context of Delhi's new slum rehabilitation policy. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
Extending the cut-off to 2025 and the estimated coverage of 4 lakh families are welcome, but housing numbers alone cannot measure success.
Main Body:
Explain Olga Tellis and the participation, survey and rehabilitation standards in Sudama Singh and Ajay Maken. Apply in-situ first, relocation last. Where relocation is unavoidable, prepare serviced homes first, with transport, schools and healthcare from day one. Discuss income loss, interrupted schooling and broken social networks. Assess transparent surveys, tender progress, distance and community participation.
Conclusion:
The cut-off extension is necessary, but success depends on livelihood continuity: the home and the family's life should remain connected.
November 2026
Myanmar: The Lure of Trade with the Junta - Act East's Dilemma and Regional Geopolitics
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Mains Practice Question
"Pragmatic engagement with Myanmar's junta is a strategic necessity of India's Act East policy, but it also has its costs." Comment. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Even after the sham election, many countries including India are engaging with the junta - the interests are clear, and so are the risks.
Main Body: The case for engagement: revival of Act East, the Kaladan project, connectivity of the North-East, border security, counterbalancing China's influence. The costs: legitimacy to a regime with an inhuman record; insecurity of connectivity projects amid civil war; erosion of the moral position in the race for rare earths; the failure of ASEAN's Five-Point Consensus. Balance: engagement should be limited, condition-based and outcome-linked; keep judicial accountability (war crimes) as a long-term goal.
Conclusion: Geopolitics demands engagement, but short-sighted greed for trade cannot buy peace - India needs a step-by-step engagement, finely balanced between interest and values.
November 2026
The Crisis of Counting Cities: Census 2027 Stays with the Old Definition, and the Demand for a National Urbanisation Policy
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Mains Practice Question
"India's urbanisation is running ahead of its official count." Comment in the context of the decision to retain the 2011 definitions in Census 2027, and suggest the way forward. (Answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: 31.2% urban in 2011 versus a many-times-higher share in satellite-based estimates; old criteria in Census 2027 - the tension between comparability and reality.
Main Body: the two systems (statutory/census town) and the 1981 criteria; only 175 of 2,576 new census towns became statutory - exclusion from ULBs and MoHUA schemes; the male-centric 75% criterion does not count women's work. The comparability argument also carries weight - the Standing Committee too did not consider an immediate change appropriate. The way: declaration of transitional areas, a time limit for conversion, inter-censal surveys, a gender-inclusive method, and an institutional-fiscal mechanism through a National Urbanisation Policy.
Conclusion: Even while preserving comparability, policy must move ahead of the count - transitional recognition and a national urbanisation policy can serve as that bridge.
November 2026
Due Process in the Death Penalty: Bachan Singh to Manoj - Four Decades of the Supreme Court's Safeguards
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Mains Practice Question
"The weakness of judicial safeguards for the death penalty in India lies not at the appellate level but in the sentencing hearing at the trial level." Review this in the context of the Bachan Singh (1980) and Manoj (2022) judgments. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Death penalty validity + conditions since 1980 (Bachan Singh); practical directions for the sentencing hearing in 2022 (Manoj); figures of 128 death sentences in 2025 versus appellate rejection.
Main Body: Bachan Singh's boundary lines: life imprisonment the rule, "special reasons", weighing the criminal's circumstances, the "unquestionably foreclosed" test. Manoj's role: mitigating circumstances at the trial level - mental-health evaluation, socio-economic background, prison-conduct report, opportunity for rebuttal. The problem: trial courts often remain crime-centred (retributive); large-scale commutation/acquittal at the appellate level is proof of this failure; the Supreme Court confirming none for three consecutive years. Reform: monitoring of Manoj compliance, expert assistance in sentencing hearings, a reformative approach.
Conclusion: The death penalty is not the rule but the rarest exception - and the process of that exception should be as careful as its outcome is severe; the quality of the trial-level sentencing hearing is the test of due process.
November 2026
60-Day Prohibitory Orders in Delhi: BNSS Section 163, Ex-parte Orders and the Supreme Court's Notice
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Mains Practice Question
"Long-term and one-sided use of preventive prohibitory orders can weaken the fundamental right of assembly by giving it a cover of procedural validity." Comment in the context of Delhi's recent 60-day prohibitory orders. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The essence of Delhi Police's seven BNSS-163 prohibitory orders - 60 days, ex-parte, in key areas - and the Supreme Court's scrutiny of them.
Main Body: Rights side: the guarantee of Article 19(1)(a)/(b); the purpose of preventive power is an immediate emergency, not permanent restriction; ex-parte issuance and a 60-day blanket duration take away the opportunity to object; the significance of the 9 October "avoid blanket bans" order. Administration side: the sensitivity of New Delhi (Jantar Mantar, Parliament, Rashtrapati Bhavan), the July 2026 violence, public order as a valid ground under 19(3). Balance: the proportionality test - necessity, least restrictive means, limits of duration and area, public transparency of the orders.
Conclusion: A prohibitory order should be the exception, not the rule - this power stays constitutional only with limits of duration, area and review.
November 2026
Arms Control: India's Objection to the Regional Framework
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Mains Practice Question
Examine the usefulness and limits of the regional approach to conventional arms control. In this context, discuss India's concerns relating to global security. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: explain the meaning of conventional arms control and establish the relationship between regional dialogue and the wider security system.
Main Body: write the benefits of regional confidence-building, transparency and preventing arms races. Explain the challenge of external powers, technology, alliances and unequal defence capabilities. Present India's vote as an objection to the language of a specific draft, not as complete opposition to disarmament. Make the difference between committee approval and a final agreement clear.
Conclusion: make legitimate defence needs, human security, reciprocity and credible verification of compliance the combined basis.
November 2026
Voter Awareness Campaign: The Supreme Court's Order for Reconsideration
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The superintendence, direction and control of panchayat elections is vested in the State Election Commission under Article 243K.
Statement 2: Article 243ZA gives the control of municipal elections to the Election Commission of India.Choose the correct option:
(A) Statement 1 only
(B) Statement 2 only
(C) Both statements
(D) Neither statement
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (A) Articles 243K for panchayats and 243ZA for municipalities provide for the State Election Commission. The constitutional basis of the Election Commission of India is Article 324.
Question 2. Which statement about the order of 2 November 2026 in the Aruna Roy case is correct?
(A) The court gave unconditional permission for campaigns to all civic groups of the country.
(B) The court automatically ended all electoral restrictions.
(C) The Rajasthan State Election Commission has to reconsider the related request and give an appropriate order in two days.
(D) The court merged the State Election Commission into the Election Commission of India.
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (C) Quashing the 9 October communication, a direction for reconsideration was given. This is not permission for the campaign by the court itself. The three-day time limit was in this case's separate interim order of 19 April 2024.
November 2026
Stock Market Rally: A Signal of Confidence, Not Proof of the Whole Economy
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Mains Practice Question
"A stock market rally is a sign of economic confidence, but not sufficient proof of broad economic prosperity." Discuss. (Answer in 150 words. 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Explain the relationship between market indices and expectations of the future.
Main Body: Valuation of earnings, liquidity and risk; primary and secondary markets; the limited basket of the index, unequal gains and the difference between market value and GDP; explain checking with employment, consumption and real investment.
Conclusion: While treating the market as a useful signal, state the need for a multi-indicator and inclusive assessment.
November 2026
Small Cities: Bringing Climate Safety into Everyday Planning
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Mains Practice Question
"In small cities, climate-resilient development is a question of everyday urban planning more than of separate projects." Discuss. (Answer in 150 words. 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: begin with the combined meaning of adaptation, emission reduction and inclusive development.
Main Body: land use, buildings and cooling, water and flood, nature-based measures; explain the challenges of departmental coordination, finance and maintenance; local data and citizen participation.
Conclusion: connect the national framework with local risk, capacity and measurable outcomes.
November 2026
IPO Grey Market: The Noise of Premium and the Investor's Risk
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Mains Practice Question
"Enthusiasm in the IPO market is sustainable only when it rests on reliable information and investor protection." Discuss with reference to the grey market premium. (Write the answer in 150 words. 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Present the IPO as a means of raising capital and public participation.
Main Body: Explain the difference between GMP and the official price; the risks of rumour, valuation, counterparty and the crowd; the formal route of ASBA; the limits of SCORES; and the need for oversight and disclosure.
Conclusion: State the need to keep an accessible market, risk literacy and accountable regulation together.
November 2026
Indonesia's Fires: The Real Meaning of 1.9 Million Hectares
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Mains Practice Question
"The total area of forest and land fires does not by itself tell their full environmental damage." Discuss this statement with reference to Indonesia's 2026 fires and explain the role of climate information and land management in prevention. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: State the 1.9 million hectare figure as the estimate of fire-affected land for January-September; do not treat it as complete forest destruction.
Main Body: Explain the difference between land cover, natural forest and peatland; hotspots versus area; damage to moist forest, and health and carbon effects. Tie the El Niño-influenced dryness to drainage and land-clearing practices. Write the limits of satellite data and the need for ground verification.
Conclusion: Give a solution that ties peatland water management, community-based prevention, early warning, health protection and transparent data together.
November 2026
PMJJBY: 13.07 Lakh Cumulative Enrolments in Jammu and Kashmir, Claims of ₹4.98 Crore Paid in FY 2026-27
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):
Statement 1: It was launched on 9 May 2015.
Statement 2: Its annual premium has been ₹436 since 1 June 2022.
Statement 3: It gives an insurance cover of ₹5 lakh on death due to any reason.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct: PMJJBY was launched on 9 May 2015, and after the first review based on claim experience, the annual premium was raised from ₹330 to ₹436 from 1 June 2022. Statement 3 is wrong: the scheme gives a cover of ₹2 lakh on death due to any reason, not ₹5 lakh.
Question 2. Consider the following statements with reference to the implementation of PMJJBY in Jammu and Kashmir:
Statement 1: Cumulative enrolments under the scheme in the Union Territory have crossed 13.07 lakh.
Statement 2: Claims worth ₹4.98 crore were settled in financial year 2026-27.
Statement 3: This scheme gives cover only in the event of death by accident.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct: according to the Jammu and Kashmir DIPR, cumulative enrolments are 13.07 lakh and claims of ₹4.98 crore were settled in financial year 2026-27 (premium paid ₹3.01 crore). Statement 3 is wrong: PMJJBY covers death due to any reason; the accident-only cover scheme is PMSBY.
November 2026
Bharatiya Vayuyan Rules 2026, Rule 192: Airfare Transparency and Intervention
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Question 1. With reference to the Bharatiya Vayuyan Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: These rules have been notified under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024.
Statement 2: These rules came into force from the day of notification itself.
Statement 3: In an extraordinary situation, the central government can issue directions without any time limit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statement 1 is correct - the rules have been made under sections of the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 (such as 10, 11, 17, 19, 20, 25(4), 30, 32, 33). Statement 2 is wrong - under Rule 1(2) they will come into force on 1 January 2027, not from the day of notification. Statement 3 is wrong - under sub-rule (6) the Centre can give directions only for a specified period, proportionately, in public interest.
Question 2. Under Rule 192, which body has been given the responsibility for regular monitoring of air tariffs?
(a) The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
(b) The Airports Authority of India (AAI)
(c) The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA)
(d) The Ministry of Civil Aviation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Sub-rule (5) places the monitoring of tariffs under the responsibility of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). The AAI manages airports and AERA is linked to the regulation of charges at major airports - tariff monitoring is not with them.
November 2026
US Midterm Elections: Majority Changed, the Veto Remains
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Mains Practice Questions
Why is it inadequate to call the US midterm election only a referendum on the president? Discuss with reference to the federal structure and legislative control. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Give a brief introduction to the two chambers, the election cycle and the effect on the sitting government.
Main Body: Explain the separate cycles of the House and Senate, state-level rules, the confluence of local and national issues, and the result's effect on legislative control, oversight, the budget and law-making. Keep the distinction between a projection and a certified result clear.
Conclusion: Present the midterm election as a combined process that settles accountability, federal diversity and the direction of governance.
Discuss the balance between a US president's veto and Congress's powers of oversight in a situation of divided government. (Write the answer in 150 words. 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Give a brief introduction to the veto and its two-thirds-majority answer under Article I, Section 7. State that under divided government, the two powers come face to face.
Main Body: Write about the effect of a veto threat on the language of bills, the pocket-veto rule and the limits of executive orders. State Congress's tools: the power over appropriations, the Senate's consent and committees' investigations.
Conclusion: Write that the balance of power is settled by both confrontation and compromise. This is a test of the American system of checks and balances.
November 2026
Property Declaration: Accountability Beyond Filing
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Mains Practice Question
"Property declaration by public servants becomes an instrument of effective accountability only when it carries complete, comparable and verifiable information." Examining this statement, suggest balanced reform between transparency and privacy. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: make clear the three separate stages of declaration, public publication and verification.
Main Body: state the separate scope of the IPR and the Lokpal law. Explain the difficulty of comparison from incomplete area and value entries. Suggest a clear format, identification of change, risk-based checking and an opportunity for clarification. Keep in mind privacy safeguards and the statutory scope.
Conclusion: moving beyond the count of filings, the quality of information and fair verification should be made the yardstick of success.
November 2026
Navy Modernisation: From Acceptance to Capability
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Mains Practice Question
Why, in naval modernisation, is it necessary to develop protection systems and domestic industrial capability along with the purchase of new platforms? Discuss, clarifying the difference between Acceptance of Necessity and a final contract in defence procurement. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Link the subject to the DAC decision of 26 October 2026: the total value of the three services' proposals, AODS and major platforms for the Navy.
Main Body: Describe AoN as initial acceptance and a contract as a separate stage. Explain the importance of sensors, protection, a trained crew and maintenance along with platforms. Carry the difference between procurement from Indian industry and indigenous content. Connect industry to the capability of design, integration and life-cycle support.
Conclusion: The test of success is not the accepted amount but operational capability delivered on time and sustainably.
November 2026
Drought's Blow on the White Truffle
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Mains Practice Question
"The effect of climate change is now reaching beyond mainstream food crops to ecologically sensitive special produce." Discuss this statement with reference to Europe's white truffle crisis, and evaluate possible adaptation strategies for such produce. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: introduce the white truffle crisis - in 2026 Croatian collectors' estimate of about 30% decline, prices 20-30% higher in Alba; cause: summer drought and high temperature.
Main Body: the roots of sensitivity: mycorrhizal ecology, the need for cold-moist soil, limited orchard success and the uncertainty of large scale, the shrinking geographical area. Economic-social effects: hunters' income, festival tourism of small towns, price instability in the luxury market. Adaptation strategies: artificial irrigation, forest management, site-suited forest restoration, microbial research, tolerant tree varieties; limits: long gestation, uncertainty. The broader lesson: extending climate-risk assessment to special livelihoods; the need for separate study on local forest produce.
Conclusion: conserving special produce demands long-term ecosystem-based investment, rather than limiting climate adaptation to crop insurance.
November 2026
Access to Cancer Medicines: The Question Beyond Headline Prices
Read the full article →November 2026
Iran-US: Attempts at Talks, a Clash over Conditions
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Mains Practice Questions
"The blockade of the Strait of Hormuz has become not merely a regional conflict, but a question of global energy security." Explaining this statement, analyse its possible effects on India's energy security and the policy options available to India. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: State the geostrategic importance of Hormuz. About one-fifth of the global supply of oil and LNG passes through here.
Background of the crisis: Write the war continuing since February 2026, the blockade of the strait, the naval blockade and the rise in energy prices.
Impact on India: Put crude oil imports, inflation, current account pressure, freight and insurance costs, and the question of the diaspora and remittances.
Policy options: State diversification of supply sources, strategic reserves, diplomatic initiatives and energy transition.
Conclusion: End by calling dialogue and a rules-based maritime order the lasting path.
Discuss the role of mediators in the conflict in West Asia and the usefulness of confidence-building measures. Give the example of the recent Iran-US developments. (Write the answer in 150 words. 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: When direct talks stop during a war, mediators keep the channel of dialogue open. Qatar has been described as the main mediator in this dialogue.
Main Body: According to reports, the two-day phased plan includes easing of the blockade, release of some funds, return of inspectors and a temporary opening of Hormuz. After this there will be detailed talks on the nuclear issue. Confidence-building measures build trust by giving small and verifiable steps first.
Limits: The two sides want a different order of steps, the details are citing unnamed officials and no official agreement has been reached.
Conclusion: Mediation holds only when both sides agree on verification and sequence.
November 2026
Jan Vishwas Reform: Trust-Based Regulation and the Next Three Reforms
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Mains Practice Question
"India's challenge is not the number of jobs but the level of wages." In the light of this statement, evaluate the role of trust-based regulatory reforms (Jan Vishwas) in creating high-wage formal employment. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The prevalence of informal employment; the link between regulatory uncertainty and entrepreneurship.
Main Body: Jan Vishwas 2023 and 2026: decriminalisation, adjudication mechanism, warning-first system - reduction in compliance cost and risk.
Wage logic: enterprises combine land, labour and capital only when rules are transparent, consistent and credible; a condition of formal growth.
Limit ahead: central law alone is not enough - state-level reforms, an implementation mindset, a single legislative source and a publication guarantee are needed.Conclusion: Give speed, scale and institutional depth to trust-based governance.
November 2026
Draft National Steel Policy Vision 2047: The 604 MT Target and the Protection-Competition Debate
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Mains Practice Question
"The Draft National Steel Policy: Vision 2047 sets ambitious targets, but the route to competitiveness runs through competition, not protection." Critically examine this statement. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
In the introduction: set the question's context from the draft policy's 2047 capacity and export targets and India's present producer position; do not present the targets as achievements.
In the main body: lay out the policy pillars of raw-material security, the secondary sector, the green transition and skills and safety. In the criticism of protection, explain the duties, QCOs, the ore export duty and the cost to downstream industries. Also test counter-arguments such as coking-coal dependence and protection from substandard imports. Compare the argument for competition with the experience of pharmaceuticals and auto parts given in the article.
In the conclusion: suggest a balance of phased openness, mining reform and investment in green technology; keep the debate before the final policy separate from an implemented decision.
November 2026
Israel's Arab Parties: Kingmakers by Seats, Still Outside Power
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Question 1. With reference to the current position of Israel's Knesset after the general election of 27 October 2026, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The Knesset has a total of 120 members and a majority of 61 members is required to form a government
Statement 2: The Arab parties have achieved their highest-ever representation in this election
Statement 3: One single bloc has itself reached the majority figure
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). In the final results, the Netanyahu bloc stood at 53, the opposition bloc at 48 and the Arab parties at a record 19 seats — no bloc reached the 61-seat majority, so Statement 3 is wrong.
Question 2. With reference to Israel's "Jewish nation-state" legal framework, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Under the Basic Law of 2018, the right of national self-determination in Israel belongs to the Jewish people alone
Statement 2: In July 2021, Israel's Supreme Court declared this law unconstitutional and annulled it
Statement 3: The Ra'am (United Arab List) party joined the government formed in 2021 by extending support
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). In July 2021, the Supreme Court upheld the law by 10-1 (it did not strike it down), saying it does not extinguish the individual rights under the other Basic Laws; hence Statement 2 is wrong. Mansour Abbas's Ra'am party joined the Bennett-Lapid government of 2021.
November 2026
National Social Security Board for Unorganised and Gig Workers: Structure, Functions and Controversy
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Mains Practice Question
"The constitution of the National Social Security Board is a significant step towards linking the gig economy to a formal welfare framework, but questions of representation and implementation remain unanswered." Analyse this statement. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The 28 October 2026 notification (S.O. 5884(E)) constitutes a 40-member board under Section 6 of the Code on Social Security, 2020 and a 22-member gig board under the proviso to Section 114(6); the step comes amid estimates of the gig workforce reaching 2.35 crore by 2029-30 (NITI Aayog).
Main Body: Significance: the first statutory recognition of gig and platform workers, the Section 141 Social Security Fund, aggregator contributions (1-2 per cent of turnover, 5 per cent cap), portability through Aadhaar-based UAN, EPFO's universal 20+ coverage. Challenges: the board's role is only recommendatory, actual schemes and the notification of the contribution rate are still pending; most of the 12 recognised central trade unions are left out, raising questions over representation; the practical capacity of state-level record-keeping and registration; the continuity of scheme financing.
Conclusion: The board's success rests on the pace of its first meeting, the notification of schemes and inclusive representation; the building of an institutional framework is only the beginning - reaching distribution will be the test.
November 2026
AI and Advertising: Meta versus Google Search
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Mains Practice Question
"AI-based search is simultaneously a threat and an opportunity for Google's advertising-centred business model." Analyse this statement in the light of the quarterly results. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: In Alphabet's July-September 2026 quarter, revenue rose about 25 per cent, but the admission of lower earnings in AI Mode raised a question over the search model.
Main Body: Threat: about 64 per cent of total revenue comes from advertising; earnings in AI Mode are lower; users may click advertisement links less after getting direct answers. Opportunity: AI Mode queries are three times longer and many are "additive", meaning new advertising opportunities; Cloud's growth has become a second engine; Meta's example shows AI prediction can raise advertising earnings.
Conclusion: The decisive factors are the cost and duration of the transition; success depends on how quickly and how reliably an advertising model is built within AI answers.
Assess the changes taking place in the digital advertising market because of AI, and suggest policy measures for its effect on news publishers. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: AI is changing the advertising market in two ways.
Main Body: On social platforms, better prediction is making advertisements more relevant, as seen in Meta's higher ad impressions and prices. In search, AI summaries give direct answers, changing the arithmetic of clicks and advertising space. Publishers' traffic can decline.
Conclusion: Measures: monitoring transparency and competition in the advertising market; an arrangement of fair payment or credit to publishers for the use of content; shared standards of measurement for advertisers.
November 2026
PM Surya Ghar, Solar Manufacturing and Grid Storage: Three Links Compared
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Mains Practice Question
"Despite the domestic success of PM Surya Ghar, India's solar project is surrounded by two weak links of manufacturing and storage." Analyse this statement. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: More than 50 lakh homes in two years (official release) and the report of 60 lakh in October 2026 show demand-side success, but the upper links of the value chain and storage are behind.
Main Body: The manufacturing link: modules 213 gigawatt versus cells 32 gigawatt, ingot-wafer 2 gigawatt and polysilicon zero; converting the 48,337 megawatt of PLI LoA into real production remains. The storage link: against the 2030 need of 60.63 gigawatt (18.98 PSP + 41.65 BESS), operational BESS is about 5.3 gigawatt-hour; the VGF and ACC PLI steps are right, but speed of execution is decisive. Pace pressure: for the 30 gigawatt target a monthly rate of 2.07 gigawatt is needed, in September 1.375 gigawatt was added.
Conclusion: Without linking domestic demand success with cell-polysilicon manufacturing and battery storage, the 500 gigawatt non-fossil target and energy self-reliance will remain incomplete.
November 2026
El Niño, the Indian Ocean Dipole and the Monsoon: A Risk, Not a Verdict
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Mains Practice Question
"A strong El Niño is a risk for the Indian monsoon, not a verdict." Analyse this statement with reference to the role of other climate factors including the IOD. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: in October 2026, between the strong-to-very-strong El Niño (Niño 3.4 +2.0 degrees Celsius) and the 2026 monsoon staying 13 per cent below the long-period average (87 per cent), this question is central.
Main Body: the mechanism: with El Niño the Walker circulation weakens, putting pressure on the monsoon; the tendency: of seven collisions since 1950, five were deficient years. The counter: in 1997, despite the strongest El Niño, rainfall stayed almost normal - the balancing of factors like a positive IOD; in 2023, a limited shortfall. The present: the IOD is neutral, the MMCFS sees neutrality likely to continue; some international centres expect a positive phase. Implications: risk-based, not destiny-based, preparedness for agricultural planning, reservoir management and regional inequalities such as east-northeast India.
Conclusion: without understanding the ENSO-IOD combination and regional inequality, treating El Niño as the monsoon's sole determinant is incomplete from both the scientific and the policy view.
November 2026
NVS-03's Success on GSLV-F18, Yet ISRO's Capacity Challenge: Only Three Orbital Launches by 2 November
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Mains Practice Question
"Despite the success of GSLV-F18/NVS-03, ISRO's capacity constraints are a major challenge before India's space goals." Review this statement. (Answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The successful launch of NVS-03 by GSLV-F18 on 30 October 2026 and the restoration of NavIC's four-satellite minimum configuration, as stated by the ISRO Chairman, are a relief, but the launch list shows only two successful orbital launches in 2026 so far.
Main Body: Constraints: the successive failures of PSLV-C61 (May 2025) and PSLV-C62 (January 2026) and pressure on vehicle reliability; NavIC short of one satellite for six months because of clock failures and NVS-02's failure; budget constraints recorded in the committee's 410th report (87.82% allocation, slow spending, IN-SPACe/INSAT cuts) and the constraints of special-component availability, vendor readiness and dependence on foreign vendors. Reform directions: use of the component-manufacturing scheme and the Semiconductor Laboratory, increased resources, a dedicated operator for NavIC, a national space law.
Conclusion: For the plans of human spaceflight, a space station and a reusable vehicle, not mission-by-mission improvisation but a combination of resources, institutions and law is necessary.
November 2026
Sardar Patel's 151st Birth Anniversary: The Legacy of Integration, the Constitution and Unity in Diversity
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Mains Practice Question
"Sardar Patel's method of integration was a confluence of diplomacy, institutional legitimacy and citizen-equality." Examine this statement. (Answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Patel's role in the context of National Unity Day on the 151st anniversary, 31 October 2026; the challenge of more than 550 princely states at the time of independence.
Main Body: The machinery of integration: Instruments of Accession, Standstill Agreements, the guarantee of privy purses, the policy of democratisation along with integration from December 1947; the peaceful merger of most princely states and firmness where needed. The institutional side: chairmanship of the Provincial Constitution Committee, the role in the Advisory Committee, satisfaction over the giving up of separate electorates on 26 May 1949. Citizen-equality: Patel's view of the same fundamental rights and legal procedure for citizens of states and provinces. Relevance: the convention of regarding diversity as the foundation of unity and federal communication.
Conclusion: Patel's legacy is not only geographical integration but a model of nation-building based on the legal route, agreements and equal citizenship; the continuing importance of Ekta Diwas lies in this.
November 2026
First Jan Aushadhi Kendra in Delhi, 17 Years Old, Faces Closure as Shastri Bhawan Is Demolished
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Mains Practice Question
"Ensuring the continuity of public services during development projects is part of governmental accountability." Comment with reference to the Jan Aushadhi Kendra at Shastri Bhawan. (Answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Delhi's first Jan Aushadhi Kendra, running since 2009, is on the verge of closing without an alternative site because of the Central Vista demolition.
Main Body: Importance of the service: generic medicines 50-80% cheaper, ministry employees and construction workers as beneficiaries, a national network of 20,000+ Kendras by June 2026. Accountability questions: the letters of January to July going unanswered; coordination delay between the scheme (Department of Pharmaceuticals) and land (MoHUA). Way ahead: a service-continuity plan before demolition (alternative site first), inter-ministerial timelines, information for beneficiaries.
Conclusion: Buildings may change, but the service must not stop: a continuity plan should be a mandatory part of project approval.
November 2026
Nepal's Electricity Exports to India Continue Even After Flood Devastation: $39 Million in a Month
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Mains Practice Question
"Energy trade is becoming the most stable link of India-Nepal relations." Analyse with reference to the flood recovery. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Nepal's export of 1,262 MU to India within two months of the flood and India's approval of 654 MW emergency supply - two-way energy partnership.
Main Body: the bases of stability: seasonal complementarity (monsoon surplus versus winter imports), the institutional framework (bilateral agreements, the NVVN trilateral model), rising export income (Rs 17.47 to Rs 29.3 billion). Risks: hydropower insecurity from climate disasters, the "surplus versus reduced domestic demand" question, transmission dependence. Direction: a flood-resilient grid, the regional power market (BBIN), projects like Arun-III.
Conclusion: energy diplomacy gives bilateral relations stability above the cycle of events; in the climate age it is essential to join it with resilience investment.
November 2026
Chinese Vessel Near Pratas Island: Taiwan Alleges Harassment
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Mains Practice Question
"Grey-zone strategy weakens the rules-based maritime order without open war." Comment in the context of the Taiwan-China coast guard confrontation (November 2026). (Answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction: The incident of 1 November 2026 - a Chinese vessel in restricted waters near Pratas; China's "routine patrol" claim and Taiwan's "no jurisdiction" reply.
Main Body: Elements of the grey zone: the language of law enforcement, civilian/paramilitary vessels, the perception of "normal" through repetition, gradual erosion of jurisdiction. Effect on the rules-based order: the limits of UNCLOS, the imbalance of enforcement capacity, the pressure on negotiating mechanisms. India's lesson: freedom of navigation, QUAD coordination, preparation to enforce its own coastal rights.
Conclusion: The answer is a combination of restraint + documentation + regional coordination; not letting the pressure become "normal" is itself the defence of the order.
November 2026
Air Chief Marshal Ashutosh Dixit Becomes 29th Chief of the Air Staff; Announces 'VAYU' Priorities
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Question 1. With reference to Air Chief Marshal Ashutosh Dixit, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: He is the 29th Chief of the Indian Air Force.
Statement 2: He paid homage at the National War Memorial on the occasion of assuming charge.
Statement 3: He is an alumnus of the National Defence Academy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) - He took charge as the 29th Chief of the Indian Air Force on 31 October 2026; on the occasion he paid homage at the National War Memorial; he is an NDA alumnus and was commissioned into the fighter stream on 6 December 1986. He succeeded Air Chief Marshal A.P. Singh (retired after 42 years of service).
Question 2. With reference to the new Air Chief's service profile, which statement related to the Jaguar and MiG-27 upgrade projects is correct?
(a) He contributed to finalising these projects and completing their IOC/FOC (initial/final operational clearance)
(b) He prepared the design of both these aircraft
(c) These projects have no connection with his service
(d) He had these projects shut down
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - According to PIB's service profile, he contributed to finalising the Jaguar and MiG-27 upgrade projects and completing their IOC/FOC.
November 2026
108 Chortens at Gelephu: GMC's Spiritual Foundation with Buddhist Relics of Indian Origin
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Question 1. With reference to the Gelephu Mindfulness City (GMC), consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Gelephu is a southern region of Bhutan located near India's state of Assam.
Statement-II: GMC is a special economic-zone project of Bhutan.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) - Gelephu is in southern Bhutan near the Assam border; GMC (Gelephu Mindfulness City) is Bhutan's ambitious special administrative economic-zone project.
Question 2. With reference to the 108 chortens built at Gelephu on 1 November 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) All the chortens were built with relics of Bhutanese origin only
(b) Buddhist relics of Indian origin were installed in most of the chortens
(c) The chortens were only memorial structures of brick and stone, with no relics
(d) The event was part of a UNESCO heritage listing
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - according to the Central Monastic Body, the source of the relics installed in most chortens was verified as India; relics were also donated from Malaysia, Singapore, Taiwan, Thailand and Bhutan.
November 2026
Justice Bhuyan on Scientific Temper: Article 51A(h) Beyond the Laboratory
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Question 1. With reference to fundamental duties, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Article 51A(h) states the duty to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Statement-II: Fundamental duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - 51A(h) is the duty related to scientific temper; fundamental duties were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), on the basis of the Swaran Singh Committee's recommendations.
Question 2. With reference to Justice Ujjal Bhuyan's statement of 31 October 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) He called for keeping scientific temper confined to laboratories
(b) He said that a society which accepts without evidence becomes vulnerable to misinformation and helpless before authoritarianism
(c) He demanded that fundamental duties be made judicially enforceable
(d) The statement was a judicial order on curriculum reform
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - At the University of Science and Technology in Meghalaya, Justice Bhuyan said that evidence-free acceptance and the fear of questions make a society vulnerable to misinformation; he described 51A's scientific temper as the basis of public thinking beyond the laboratory.
November 2026
Mongolpuri Shoe-Factory Fire: Four Workers Dead, BNS Charges, and the Structural Failure of Regulation
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Question 1. With reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: BNS section 105 provides for culpable homicide not amounting to murder, which came in place of IPC sections 299/304.
Statement 2: In the BNS, negligent conduct with respect to fire/combustible materials is not punishable.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct
(c) Statement 1 is not correct, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - BNS section 105 is the penal provision for culpable homicide (not amounting to murder). BNS section 287 makes negligent conduct with respect to fire or combustible matter punishable (similar to IPC section 285), so Statement 2 is wrong.
Question 2. With reference to the Mongolpuri factory fire of 30 October 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) Four workers died; raw material kept on the staircases and the lack of ventilation became obstacles to rescue
(b) No casualty took place in the incident, only property was damaged
(c) The fire broke out in a residential building, not an industrial unit
(d) No FIR was registered against the management
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) - Four workers died in Mongolpuri's shoe factory (G+3); per fire officers, raw material on the staircases and the absence of ventilation hindered rescue; two members of the management were arrested, with an FIR under three BNS sections.
November 2026
Three Drug-Arms Networks Busted in Amritsar: 8 Arrested, 11 Pistols, 2.3 kg Heroin
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Question 1. With reference to the jurisdiction of the Border Security Force (BSF), consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The BSF has powers of search, seizure and arrest up to a belt of 50 kilometres from the international border.
Statement-II: In Punjab, West Bengal and Assam, this border belt can never be changed without coordination with the states.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - The BSF has powers in the 50 km belt from the border (raised from 15 to 50 km in Punjab, West Bengal and Assam in 2021); the Central Government can change this limit by notification, so Statement-II is wrong.
Question 2. With reference to the Amritsar action of 30 October 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) Three networks were busted, 8 arrested, 11 pistols and about 2.3 kg of heroin recovered
(b) A single network was busted, only heroin was recovered, no weapons
(c) The action was limited to a drone consignment, there were no arrests
(d) The action was carried out by the BSF on the international border, the police had no role
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - Amritsar Commissionerate Police busted three separate networks and arrested 8 people; 11 pistols, four cartridges and 2.293 kg of heroin were recovered (Punjab DGP, 30 October 2026).
November 2026
Cyclone 'Murasu': Landfall on the South Andhra Coast Early on 3 November, IMD Confirms
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the cyclone-intensity classification:
Statement-I: The Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre (RSMC) for monitoring cyclones of the North Indian Ocean is in New Delhi.
Statement-II: Cyclone naming is done from the WMO/ESCAP panel's predetermined list.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) - RSMC New Delhi is the centre for the North Indian Ocean's cyclones; names are given in turn from the WMO/ESCAP panel's list.
Question 2. Which statement is correct with reference to Cyclone 'Murasu' (position as of 1 November 2026)?
(a) It formed in the Arabian Sea and was moving towards the Gujarat coast
(b) It is a Bay of Bengal system; the forecast is of crossing the south Andhra coast between 11:30 PM on 2 November and 4:00 AM on 3 November (IST)
(c) It dissipated over the sea without making landfall
(d) It is just a new name for Cyclone Arnab
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) - 'Murasu' is a Bay of Bengal system; according to IMD it was forecast to become a severe cyclonic storm on 2 November and cross the coast between Nellore and Narsapur between 11:30 PM on 2 November and 4:00 AM on 3 November (IST) at 100-110 km/h (gusting to 120). It is a separate event from Arnab.
November 2026
Revised GRAP in Force in Delhi-NCR: Curbs on Outside Non-BS-VI Vehicles from 1 November; Stage-II from 2 November
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to GRAP:
Statement 1: The body implementing GRAP is the CAQM, the Commission for Air Quality Management for NCR and adjoining areas.
Statement 2: Under GRAP, restrictions tighten from Stage I to Stage IV according to the AQI category.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct
(c) Statement 1 is not correct, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - GRAP is CAQM's graded action plan in which restrictions tighten from Stage I to IV according to the AQI category.
Question 2. With reference to the revised GRAP provision in force from 1 November 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) Border checks began with a restriction on the entry of non-BS-VI vehicles registered outside Delhi
(b) A complete ban was imposed on all private vehicles
(c) New restrictions were imposed only on industrial units, not on vehicles
(d) GRAP Stage-IV was imposed
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - Under the revised GRAP, Delhi Traffic Police is conducting border checks from 1 November; there is a restriction on the entry of vehicles registered outside (GRAP Stage-I was already in force since 21 October).
November 2026
Bengaluru Startup's PRAGYA Tokamak: The First Step of Private Fusion Energy in India
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Question 1. With reference to a tokamak, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A tokamak is a device that confines plasma with a magnetic field to create the conditions of nuclear fusion.
Statement-II: ITER has its headquarters in Germany and India is not its partner.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - A tokamak is a fusion device based on magnetic confinement. ITER is a seven-partner project (including India) located in France, so Statement-II is incorrect.
Question 2. With reference to PRAGYA of Pranos Fusion, which statement is correct?
(a) It is India's first commercial fusion energy plant supplying electricity to the grid
(b) It is a small tokamak for plasma control and superconducting magnet testing; the blueprint of the larger PRANIK is expected by 2027
(c) It is the Indian component of ITER run by the government
(d) It is a fission-based small modular reactor
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - PRAGYA is a small test-level tokamak; the company is a private startup incubated at the Institute of Plasma Research and JNCASR, and the blueprint of the larger tokamak PRANIK is expected by 2027.
November 2026
SpaceX-Tesla Merger Discussion: A Proposal at the Consideration Stage
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Question 1. Consider these statements about private space activity:
Statement-I: IN-SPACe is an autonomous nodal body promoting and regulating India's private space sector.
Statement-II: Starlink is SpaceX's satellite-internet constellation.
Which are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
(c) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). IN-SPACe, established in 2020, is the nodal body; Starlink is SpaceX's satellite-internet constellation.
Question 2. Which statement describes the merger discussion in October 2026?
(a) The companies have completed their merger.
(b) A merger is under consideration, with no formal deal, board proposal or regulatory filing.
(c) SpaceX has completely ruled out a merger.
(d) US regulators have approved it.
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Reports describe a consideration-stage proposal requiring Musk's approval, not a formal deal or filing.
November 2026
Mekedatu Dispute: Inspection Is Not Final Approval
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Mains Practice Question
With reference to the Mekedatu project, explain why technical evaluation, judicial oversight and cooperative federalism complement one another in inter-state river-water disputes. (Write the answer in 250 words. 15 marks)
Answer Outline
In the introduction: begin the question with the upper state's water-management need on the Cauvery and the lower state's concern about fixed flows. Make clear that site inspection, preparing the DPR and final approval are separate stages.
In the main body: explain the technical work of the CWMA and the CWRC, the 2018 scheme under Section 6A and the priority given to expert review in the 2025 decision. Alongside, mention the Court's retention of the water-release obligation and of available legal remedies. Not only the annual quantity but also the monthly schedule and management of low-rainfall years are necessary. Suggest shared data, transparent orders, hearing the affected states and monitoring compliance with conditions. Do not turn any state's consent-related demand, without analysis, into a final legal conclusion.
In the conclusion: expert review is not a substitute for political trust, and dialogue is not a substitute for statutory clearances. Only fact-based decisions, together with the protection of rights, can give a durable federal solution.
November 2026
The Transit Corridor Debate in Bangladesh: Nahid Islam's Warning and the Clock of the Ganga Treaty
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Question 1. With reference to the Ganga Water Sharing Treaty, 1996, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: This treaty relates to the sharing of the Ganga's water at the Farakka point.
Statement-II: It is a treaty of 30 years' duration whose renewal point comes in December 2026.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) - The Ganga Water Treaty of 1996 is a 30-year arrangement of water sharing at Farakka; its renewal point is in December 2026 - this is the background of the current pressure for talks.
Question 2. With reference to Nahid Islam's rally in Dhaka on 30 October 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) He supported any proposal to give India a transit corridor
(b) He opposed the transit corridor and demanded a fair water agreement before the Ganga Treaty
(c) The rally was only in support of the Ganga Water Treaty
(d) He announced joining the Kaladan project
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - NCP convener Nahid Islam called any transit corridor unacceptable, accused the government of facilitating a corridor, and demanded a fair water agreement before the Ganga Treaty expiring in December.
November 2026
Quad Foreign Ministers' Atlanta Meeting: Economic Coercion, Export Curbs and Trusted Supply Chains
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Question 1. With reference to the Quad, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Quad's members are India, the US, Japan and Australia.
Statement-II: The Quad is a formal military alliance with a collective defence commitment.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - The Quad is a minilateral forum of four countries; it is not a formal military alliance and carries no NATO-like collective defence commitment.
Question 2. With reference to the Quad ministerial meeting of 31 October 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) The meeting was held in New Delhi and focused only on military cooperation
(b) The meeting was held in Atlanta; economic security, supply chains and the critical-minerals recycling programme were among the main announcements
(c) The Quad was expanded at the meeting to five new members
(d) Joint military action on the Strait of Hormuz was announced at the meeting
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - The Atlanta meeting's main outcomes were concern over economic coercion, the trusted supply-chain commitment, Pax Silica/AI assistance and the $10 million critical-minerals recycling programme.
November 2026
How the CEC Can Be Removed: The Constitution's Process and Protective Ring
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about removing the CEC:
Statement 1: Article 324(5) speaks of removing the CEC in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement 2: A majority of the total membership of each House and the support of at least two-thirds of those present and voting are required.
Statement 3: The CEC stands removed automatically on a simple majority of one House.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Article 124(4)'s dual majority condition applies in each House; the addresses are presented to the President in the same session and removal takes place by the President's order.
Question 2. Consider the following statements about Election Commissioners:
Statement 1: Another Election Commissioner cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the CEC.
Statement 2: A symbolic impeachment by a public gathering can take the place of the President's order of removal.
Statement 3: Under Section 11(1), an Election Commissioner may resign by writing under his or her hand addressed to the President.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). The CEC's recommendation is a necessary condition for removing another Commissioner. Resignation is a separate process. A symbolic public resolution is no substitute for constitutional removal.
Question 3. Consider the following statements about the Election Commissioners appointment law of 2023:
Statement 1: The Section 7 selection committee includes the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Statement 2: Section 9 provides for a term of six years or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
Statement 3: The selection committee that makes the appointment can also remove the CEC by simple majority.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The appointment and removal processes are different. Section 11 and Article 324(5) give the CEC judge-like removal protection; the selection committee has not been given the power to remove by simple majority.
November 2026
ECINET Controversy: Security Flaws Recorded with CERT-In, the Question of Central Control and the Pilibhit Action
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Question 1. With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission.
Statement-II: CERT-In is the national incident-response agency designated under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) - Article 324 gives the ECI superintendence/direction/control of elections; CERT-In is the national cyber incident-response agency designated under Section 70B of the IT Act.
Question 2. With reference to the Pilibhit-related action of 1 November 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) The UP CEO ordered the deactivation of some ECINET login IDs across the state
(b) The Election Commission shut down the ECINET platform completely
(c) The inquiry found no evidence of credential misuse
(d) The action remained confined within a single district
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) - UP CEO Navdeep Rinwa ordered the statewide deactivation of some ECINET IDs of data operators after complaints in Pilibhit; the inquiry revealed 13,779 Form-8 entries (10,470 accepted) by a computer assistant.
November 2026
₹1.09 Lakh Crore Advance Tax Devolution to the States
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Question 1. With reference to tax devolution, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: On the Fifteenth Finance Commission's recommendation, the states' share of the divisible pool is 41%.
Statement-II: Revenue from cess and surcharge forms part of the divisible pool of central tax revenue.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) - The Fifteenth Finance Commission fixed the states' share at 41% (reduced from the Fourteenth's 42% because of Jammu and Kashmir's reorganisation). Cess and surcharge revenue is not included in the divisible pool - this is the main point of the centre-state fiscal debate.
Question 2. With reference to the advance tax-devolution instalment released on 31 October 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) This amount of ₹1,09,019 crore was part of the regular monthly devolution
(b) It was the first additional instalment of this financial year
(c) It was an additional/advance instalment of ₹1,09,019 crore, whose purpose was to speed up the states' capital spending in the festive season
(d) This amount was given only to special-category states
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) - According to the PIB release, it is over and above the regular monthly devolution, the second additional instalment of the financial year; the purpose is capital spending and financing of development/welfare programmes in the festive season.
November 2026
BioSentinel Mission: Yeast Experiment Failed, but Deep-Space Radiation Data Continues Even Today
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the BioSentinel mission:
Statement-I: It was launched with the Artemis I mission.
Statement-II: It is the first biological CubeSat to travel beyond low Earth orbit (LEO).Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. BioSentinel was launched on 16 November 2022 with Artemis I as one of 10 CubeSats (Statement-I correct). NASA Ames's 6U CubeSat is the first biological CubeSat to go beyond LEO (Statement-II correct).
Question 2. Consider the following statements with reference to BioSentinel's experiment results:
Statement-I: The yeast experiment yielded the expected data on radiation's effect on living cells.
Statement-II: The spacecraft's radiation sensor is still collecting radiation data.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct. The yeast did not activate (the samples had probably lost viability before launch), so cell-radiation data was not obtained (Statement-I wrong). The radiation sensor is still collecting data on the type and dose of deep-space radiation (Statement-II correct).
November 2026
UNTMIS Ends: The UN's Political Mission Leaves Somalia
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Question 1. With reference to Somalia's geography, consider the following statements:
1. Somalia borders Kenya.
2. The Equator passes through northern Somalia.
3. The Juba and the Shabelle are Somalia's main rivers.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Somalia borders Kenya to the south-west (statement 1 correct). The Equator passes through southern Somalia, not northern (statement 2 wrong). The Juba and the Shabelle are its main rivers (statement 3 correct).
Question 2. With reference to the United Nations mission in Somalia, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: UNTMIS's mandate ended on 31 October 2026.
Statement-II: The United Nations' political presence in Somalia began in 2013 with the formation of UNSOM.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. UNTMIS completed its two-year transition and ended its work on 31 October 2026 (Statement-I correct). The political presence began with UNSOM in 2013, which turned into UNTMIS on 31 October 2024 (Statement-II correct).
November 2026
Social Media Takedowns: MeitY's Advisory, the SIR Protests and Faster Blocking
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Question 1. With reference to the Information Technology Act, 2000, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Section 69A gives the power to block content on grounds such as public order or sovereignty.
Statement-II: In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court held Section 69A unconstitutional.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct. Section 69A gives blocking power on grounds such as public order, sovereignty and national security (Statement-I correct). In Shreya Singhal (2015), Section 66A was struck down, while Section 69A's procedural safeguards were kept intact (Statement-II wrong).
Question 2. With reference to MeitY's advisories of 8-10 October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The 8 October advisory was issued by the ministry's Cyber Law Division.
2. It specifies particular legal consequences of non-compliance.
3. A separate advisory was sent to Meta Inc. on 10 October.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3. The advisory was issued by the Cyber Law Division under Joint Secretary Ajit Kumar's signature (statement 1 correct). It specifies no particular legal consequences of non-compliance (statement 2 wrong). Meta got a separate advisory on 10 October, whose document is available on meity.gov.in (statement 3 correct).
November 2026
Strengthening the Food Security System: PDS, Storage and the Road to 'Smart Stock'
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Question 1. With reference to India's food security institutions, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was established under the Food Corporations Act, 1964.
Statement-II: The recommendations on the Minimum Support Price (MSP) are made by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. The FCI is the nodal agency of the Centre's food policy, established under the Food Corporations Act, 1964 (Statement-I correct). The government fixes the MSP on the basis of the CACP's recommendations (Statement-II correct).
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
1. In October 2026, foodgrain stocks in the central pool were about 84 million tonnes.
2. The mandatory minimum buffer norm of the central pool is 84 million tonnes.
3. In 2024-25, 92 percent of national wheat procurement came from Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. In October 2026 the central pool was 84 million tonnes (Statement 1 correct). The mandatory norm is 30.77 million tonnes - 84 million tonnes is nearly three times that, not the norm (Statement 2 incorrect). In 2024-25, 92 percent of wheat procurement came from Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh (Statement 3 correct).
November 2026
India-US Trade Deal: Farmers' Interests First, Sensitive Sectors Protected - Goyal
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Question 1. With reference to the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India withdrew from the RCEP talks on 4 November 2019.
Statement-II: RCEP's members include, besides the ten ASEAN countries, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. India decided on 4 November 2019 in Bangkok to withdraw from the RCEP talks, saying the outcome was not "fair and balanced" (Statement-I is correct). The remaining 15 countries - the 10 of ASEAN plus China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand - went ahead with the agreement (Statement-II is correct).
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
1. The US Secretary of State has acknowledged that "99 percent of the work" on the India-US trade deal is done.
2. The Graham bill, 2026 empowers tariffs of up to 200 per cent on countries buying Russian oil.
3. The Commerce Minister said that no sensitive interest of farmers has been touched in the deal.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Marco Rubio told the Indian Express that "99 percent of the work" on the deal is done (statement 1 is correct). The Graham bill empowers tariffs of up to 100 per cent, not 200 per cent (statement 2 is wrong). Piyush Goyal claimed protection of farmers' sensitive interests at the ISID conference (statement 3 is correct).
November 2026
AIF/FPI Ownership Disclosure: Supreme Court Disposes of Mahua Moitra's Petition
Read the full article →November 2026
FY27 Growth Estimate of 7.3 Percent: The October Monthly Economic Review
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Question 1. With reference to the publication of economic data in India, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Monthly Economic Review (MER) is released by the Department of Economic Affairs of the Finance Ministry.
Statement-II: Official quarterly GDP figures in India are released by NITI Aayog.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct. The MER is a publication of the Finance Ministry's Department of Economic Affairs (Economic Division) (Statement-I correct). Official quarterly GDP figures are released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not NITI Aayog (Statement-II wrong).
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The October 2026 MER has projected the FY27 growth rate at 7.3 per cent.
Statement 2: The Q2FY27 nowcast is 7.35 per cent, above the September review's 7.3 per cent.
Statement 3: The IMF has projected India's FY27 growth rate at 7.3 per cent in October 2026.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. In the October MER, the ministry's nowcasting model has put FY27 growth at 7.3 per cent (Statement 1 correct) and the Q2FY27 nowcast at 7.35 per cent — above September's 7.3 per cent (Statement 2 correct). The IMF's FY27 estimate is 7.0 per cent; 7.3 per cent is the ministry's estimate (Statement 3 wrong).
November 2026
Supreme Court on NCLT's Appointment System: 'Completely Hijacked by the Ministry'
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Question 1. With reference to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The NCLT has been constituted under the Companies Act, 2013.
Statement-II: The NCLAT is the appellate body that hears appeals against the orders of the NCLT.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. The NCLT was constituted under Section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013 and has been functioning since June 2016 (Statement-I correct). The NCLAT, constituted under Section 410, hears appeals against NCLT orders (Statement-II correct).
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has issued notice in the NCLT staff-appointment matter.
2. The court has asked the Presidents of the NCLT and the NCLAT for infrastructure proposals within two weeks.
3. The court has suggested the assistance of the UPSC/SSC for phased regular recruitment.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. The bench issued notice in the matter (statement 1 correct). The time limit for the proposals is four weeks, not two (statement 2 wrong). The Chief Justice suggested phased regular recruitment with the assistance of UPSC/SSC, along with an interim deputation arrangement (statement 3 correct).
October 2026
India's Message at the SCO: Security, Connectivity and Resilient Supply Chains
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Question 1. With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: India has been its full member since 2017.
Statement 2: It is a military bloc whose structure includes a supranational military command and joint military units.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). India has been a full member since 2017. The SCO is not a military bloc; its structure has no supranational military command or joint military units like a defence alliance.
Question 2. Tashkent and Dushanbe are respectively the capitals of which of the following countries?
(a) Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan
(b) Tajikistan and Uzbekistan
(c) Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(d) Turkmenistan and Kazakhstan
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Tashkent is the capital of Uzbekistan and Dushanbe of Tajikistan. The 20 October meeting of the Council of Heads of Government was held in Dushanbe.
October 2026
The Gangta Road Agreement: When Forest-Clearance and Construction Roles Collide
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Question 1. With reference to the Forest (Conservation and Augmentation) Act, 1980, consider the following statements:
- Non-forest use of forest land falling under Section 2 requires the prior approval of the central government.
- Once there is an agreement between two state departments, the need for statutory approval under Section 2 automatically ends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). Central prior approval is necessary for non-forest use within Section 2's scope. A departmental agreement does not end this legal requirement by itself.
Question 2. The Bheembandh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following states?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Bihar
(d) Odisha
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Bheembandh is located in the Kharagpur hills area of Munger district in Bihar.
October 2026
The Renewed Mining Debate in Niyamgiri: Why Gram Sabha Rights Matter
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Forest Rights Act, 2006:
Statement 1: The Gram Sabha includes all adult members of the village.
Statement 2: Under Section 6, the Gram Sabha initiates the process of determining forest rights.
Statement 3: Under Section 3, the ownership of the minerals beneath the forest land vests in the community concerned.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Act's definition and Section 6 describe the Gram Sabha's composition and its role in initiating the process. The Supreme Court made clear in the 2013 Niyamgiri judgement that Section 3 does not vest the ownership of minerals in the community.
Question 2. In the Niyamgiri mining case, the 2013 judgement gave whom the responsibility of taking the final decision on the second stage of forest clearance in the light of the Gram Sabhas' decisions?
(a) Only the Gram Panchayat concerned
(b) The project proponent company
(c) The then Ministry of Environment and Forests
(d) Only the state government
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Para 60 of the judgement asked the Ministry to take the final decision on the second stage of clearance in the light of the Gram Sabhas' decisions. The Gram Sabha's rights-related examination and the Ministry's clearance-related decision were distinct roles.
October 2026
A New Role in Mines: Opportunities for Women and the Test of Safety
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Question 1. With reference to women's night employment, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Central Rules, 2026 provide the condition of a woman employee's written consent.
Statement-II: Once consent is given, the conditions of safe transport and working conditions come to an end.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Rule 83 lays down written consent and other safety conditions together. Consent does not end the responsibility of safety.
Question 2. The Directorate General of Mines Safety is under which central ministry?
(a) Ministry of Mines
(b) Ministry of Coal
(c) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(d) Ministry of Heavy Industries
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). DGMS is under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The ministerial role related to mineral or coal production and the institutional role of occupational safety are different.
October 2026
Crisis Even After the Cyclone: Floods and the Relief Challenge in Southern Odisha
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India Heading for Record Oil Imports: Beyond Cheap Prices to Security of Supply
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Binance Security Incident: Frozen Funds, Compensation and a Test of Trust
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about asset freezing and recovery:
Statement-I: The freezing of an asset is by itself proof that it has been returned to the customer.
Statement-II: A company's preliminary loss figure should be presented, with source and date, as a company-stated estimate.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Freezing and getting the money back are different states. A preliminary company-stated estimate cannot be called an independent final audit.
Question 2. Which statement about the steps announced after this security incident is correct?
(a) It had published all the final technical findings of the investigation
(b) It said it would publish a new Proof of Reserves after remediation
(c) It declared the final recovery of all frozen assets complete
(d) It refused to compensate the loss
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The announcement contained a promise to issue a report after remediation. There was also an assurance of compensation, which should not be taken as independent verification or a completed payment.
October 2026
No Exclusion from Employment in the Name of Safety: Kerala High Court on Toddy Shops
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Consent to a Relationship Is Not Consent to Every Act: Delhi High Court
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Question 1. With reference to the principle of consent described in the report, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A relationship being consent-based does not by itself become consent to every specific act.
Statement-II: Anticipatory bail being rejected means the accused's final conviction.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). In the report, the court's remark separates the consent of a relationship and of a specific act. A decision at the anticipatory-bail stage is not a determination of guilt in a final trial.
Question 2. Which statement about this case is correct?
(a) The court applied a new statutory definition
(b) This report relates to an anticipatory-bail plea
(c) It was an appeal against a final conviction
(d) The report mentions no section of the BNS
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The source describes it as an anticipatory-bail matter and discusses Explanation 2 of Section 63 and Section 69. No claim of a statutory definition changing or of a final conviction arises from this news.
October 2026
Allegations of Form 7 Misuse: The Commission's Stand in the Supreme Court and the Voter List Process
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Question 1. With reference to the Election Commission's Form 7, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: It is used to object to a proposed inclusion or to apply for deletion of a name from the existing list.
Statement-II: As soon as it is filed, the name of the voter concerned is automatically deleted.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The official form's purpose is an objection or an application for deletion. The application and the electoral officer's decision are separate stages; filing a form is not by itself an order deleting a name.
Question 2. According to the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, consider the following pairs:
1. Form 6: inclusion of a new voter's name.
2. Form 7: objection to a proposed inclusion or an application to delete a name.
3. Form 8: shifting or correction/updating of an entry.Which pairs are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d). Rule 13 gives these forms different roles. Form 7 is not a general application for adding a name, and Form 8's role is connected with shifting and correction/updating of entries.
October 2026
UN Commission of Inquiry Report on Gaza and the West Bank: Findings, Accountability and Legal Limits
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to report A/81/430:
Statement-I: It is the Independent International Commission of Inquiry's report presented to the General Assembly.
Statement-II: Its publication is by itself treated as a final judgment of an international court.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). The document is the independent commission of inquiry's report and was sent to the General Assembly with the Secretary-General's note. A commission's inquiry report cannot be called a final judgment of an international court.
Question 2. Consider the following statements regarding the report's scope:
1. The report's main subject is killings and bodily and mental harm.
2. It also contains findings on the Palestinian Authority's conduct.
3. The report's subject is only Gaza; the West Bank is outside it.Which statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). The report's summary makes clear the subject of killings and bodily and mental harm. It also has findings on the Palestinian Authority. The West Bank is a significant part of the report, so statement 3 is wrong.
October 2026
China's Anti-Corruption Purge: 33 Expelled and 16 Generals Included at the Fifth Plenum
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Question 1. Consider the following statements in the context of the central structure of the CPC:
Statement 1: The National Party Congress elects the Central Committee.
Statement 2: The plenary session of the Central Committee elects the Politburo and its Standing Committee.
Statement 3: The General Secretary of the party is elected by China's state legislature NPC.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Articles 20 and 23 of the Party Constitution apply. The General Secretary is elected in the plenary session of the Central Committee and is from among the members of the Standing Committee of the Politburo. The NPC is a separate state body.
Question 2. Consider the following statements in the context of the Fifth Plenum, October 2026:
Statement 1: The Plenum was held on 26-29 October and Zhang Shengmin was elected a member of the Politburo.
Statement 2: The communique announced a fixed date of October 2027 for the 21st Party Congress.
Statement 3: The decision to remove Li Yunze from his party post is separate from the 33 party expulsions.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c). The official communique says the second half of 2027, not a fixed date. The action of removing Li Yunze from his party post and the expulsion of the other 33 people are recorded separately.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: According to the Party Constitution, at least one plenary session of the Central Committee must be held every year.
Statement 2: The main work of the CCDI is inspection, discipline and accountability within the party.
Statement 3: Party expulsion is automatically a criminal conviction.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Article 22 gives the rule of at least an annual plenary session. Articles 45-46 describe the CCDI as the party's internal discipline and inspection body. A party punishment and a criminal judicial decision are separate processes.
October 2026
Uttarakhand Helicopter Crash: Badrinath-Dehradun Flight Down Near Joshimath, 6 Dead
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Question 1. With reference to civil-aviation safety in India, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: DGCA is the regulatory body of Indian civil aviation under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
Statement-II: The formal investigation of aircraft accidents is conducted by DGCA, and the accident-investigation report is issued by DGCA.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct. DGCA carries out regulatory work (registration, safety standards, licensing, regulatory assessment) under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, so Statement-I is correct. The formal investigation of aircraft accidents is done by the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB); in this accident the DGCA team went for a preliminary/regulatory assessment, not for the investigation, so Statement-II is wrong.
Question 2. With reference to the Uttarakhand helicopter crash of 30 October 2026, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The crashed helicopter was an AS350B3 single-engine helicopter.
Statement 2: The helicopter took off from the Kedarnath helipad.
Statement 3: A DGCA team was sent to Dehradun for a preliminary/regulatory assessment.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. According to the PIB release, the crashed helicopter was an AS350B3 (Airbus H125, single-engine) (Statement 1 correct). It took off from the Badrinath helipad, not Kedarnath (Statement 2 wrong). The DGCA team left for Dehradun for a preliminary/regulatory assessment (Statement 3 correct).
October 2026
Odisha Local Elections: Ballot Papers in Panchayats, EVMs in Urban Bodies; Voter Survey from 26 October
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Question 1. With reference to the upcoming local body elections in Odisha, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Voting in the panchayat elections will be through ballot papers.
Statement-II: EVMs will be used in the urban local body elections.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. According to SEC Madhusudan Padhi, because the large number of EVMs needed for ~91,000 booths (about 3.36 lakh in his quote; about 3.6 lakh in TOI) is not available and because of cost, panchayat elections will be held with ballot papers (Statement-I is correct), while because two EVMs per booth are enough, urban body elections will be held with EVMs (Statement-II is correct).
Question 2. With reference to the preparation of Odisha's electoral rolls (Election 2027), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The door-to-door survey began on 26 October 2026.
Statement 2: The draft electoral roll will be published on 1 February 2027.
Statement 3: The State Election Commission is constituted under Article 243K of the Constitution.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. The survey began on 26 October 2026 (1 is correct) and the SEC is a constitutional body under Articles 243K/243ZA (3 is correct). The draft list will come on 1 January 2027, not 1 February (2 is incorrect); the final list will be published on 10 February 2027.
Sources
- The Hindu: Odisha to continue with ballot papers for rural polls, EVMs for urban (16 October 2026)
- Times of India: Ballots for panchayat, EVMs for urban polls; EVM arithmetic and form details (15 October 2026)
- New Indian Express: Door-to-door voter survey from 26 October (16 October 2026)
- State Election Commission, Odisha: official portal
Question 2. With reference to the preparation of Odisha's electoral rolls (Election 2027), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The door-to-door survey began on 26 October 2026.
Statement 2: The draft electoral roll will be published on 1 February 2027.
Statement 3: The State Election Commission is constituted under Article 243K of the Constitution.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. The survey began on 26 October 2026 (1 is correct) and the SEC is a constitutional body under Articles 243K/243ZA (3 is correct). The draft list will come on 1 January 2027, not 1 February (2 is incorrect); the final list will be published on 10 February 2027.
October 2026
A Rs 62.87 Crore Tourism Project in Bhimbandh Sanctuary: The Tender, the Dispute and the Legal Questions
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Question 1. With reference to the Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: It is spread across the Munger, Jamui and Lakhisarai districts of Bihar.
Statement-II: It is known for its natural hot-water springs.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Bhimbandh WLS (~682 sq km) is spread across the Munger, Jamui and Lakhisarai districts in the Kharagpur hills (Statement-I is correct) and is known for its natural hot-water springs (Statement-II is correct).
Question 2. With reference to BETDS's tourism tender of October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The project is proposed on a public-private partnership (PPP) mode with an investment of about Rs 62.87 crore.
2. The development concession period is fixed at 30 years.
3. The cluster includes the Bhimbandh, Belatand, Chormara and Bhattakol sites.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only. The tender is for a PPP mode with an investment of ~Rs 62.87 crore (1 is correct) and covers the Bhimbandh-Belatand-Chormara-Bhattakol cluster (3 is correct). The concession period is 60 years, not 30 (2 is wrong). Bids are open until 30 November 2026.
October 2026
First GI-Tagged Export of Tandur Red Gram: 2.5-Tonne Consignment to Australia
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Question 1. With reference to the GI tag of Tandur red gram, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Tandur red gram is Telangana's first agricultural product to obtain Geographical Indication (GI) registration.
Statement-II: Its GI certificate was issued in the year 2020.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct. According to PTI, Tandur red gram is Telangana's first agricultural product to get GI registration (Statement-I correct). According to the GI Registry, the application was filed on 24 September 2020, but the certificate was issued on 6 December 2022 (Statement-II wrong).
Question 2. With reference to the first export consignment of Tandur red gram, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The consignment was of 2.5 metric tonnes and its destination is Australia.
Statement 2: The consignment was sent by air route.
Statement 3: The consignment was facilitated by APEDA.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3. According to PTI, the 2.5 metric tonne consignment left Hyderabad for Australia (1 correct) and APEDA facilitated it (3 correct); the consignment was sent by sea route, not by air (2 wrong).
October 2026
AMRAAM Missile Assembly-Inspection Facility in Japan: Japan-US Agreement under 'Operation Supercharge'
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After the Fall in Poverty: The Challenge of Productive Employment
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the measurement of poverty:
Statement 1: Purchasing power parity adjusts the difference in prices between countries.
Statement 2: Converting a poverty line expressed in 2021 PPP into rupees at today's market exchange rate is its correct domestic value.
Statement 3: The same country's poverty rate can differ across different poverty lines.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Correct answer: (b) Only 1 and 3
PPP compares purchasing capacity between different price levels; the market exchange rate is not its substitute. Different lines capture different living standards. So Statement 2 is wrong.
Question 2. Consider the following statements with reference to the report and employment figures:
Statement 1: A 57 per cent share of the country's poor in a region is the same as that region's poverty rate being 57 per cent.
Statement 2: Real earnings are adjusted for the effect of price changes.
Statement 3: The microsimulation-based poverty projection for 2028 can be revised.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Correct answer: (b) Only 2 and 3
A region's share of the national poor population and the poverty rate of that region's residents are different ratios. Real earnings is an inflation-adjusted concept. A projection of the future can change with new labour-market and macro data.
Question 3. Consider the following statements with reference to the World Bank's "Prosperity Gap" indicator:
Statement 1: This indicator measures society's average distance from the prosperity standard of $25 a day (2021 PPP).
Statement 2: Those further below are given greater weight in it.
Statement 3: According to the October 2026 brief, India's Prosperity Gap in 2023 is 2.6.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Correct answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 - the Prosperity Gap is a measure of average distance from the $25-a-day prosperity standard, in which those further below get greater weight. Statement 3 is wrong: India's Prosperity Gap in 2023 is 4.9; 2.6 per cent is the extreme poverty rate at the $3 line - the two are different indicators.
October 2026
"Captain Smit Machchhar Gets UAE's First-Class Order of Zayed II: Third Indian Recipient, Per Reports"
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Question 1. With reference to the First-Class Order of Zayed II, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: It is a leading civilian honour of the UAE, given for diplomatic and personal contributions.
Statement-II: It is the highest civilian honour of the UAE, conferred on heads of state.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct. Per Gulf News, the First-Class Order of Zayed II is a leading civilian honour for diplomatic/personal contributions (Statement-I correct). The highest honour for heads of state is the Order of Zayed (as for PM Modi, August 2019), not the First-Class Order of Zayed II (Statement-II wrong).
Question 2. With reference to the honour conferred on Captain Smit Machchhar, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: At the award ceremony, the honours were presented by the UAE's Vice President.
Statement 2: The flight incident occurred on 30 September 2026 on flight FZ1073 on the Dubai-Tel Aviv route.
Statement 3: This honour was conferred by the UAE President on 27 October 2026.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3. The honours were presented by Dubai's Crown Prince Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum; the UAE's Vice President (Dubai ruler Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid) was present at the ceremony, not the presenter (Statement 1 wrong). The incident occurred on 30 September 2026 on Dubai-Tel Aviv flight FZ1073 (Statement 2 correct), and per WAM the honour was conferred by the UAE President on 27 October 2026 (Statement 3 correct).
October 2026
India's Cloud Ecosystem: MeghRaj, Data Sovereignty and 30 CSPs
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Question 1. With reference to India's cloud ecosystem, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: As of September 2026, 30 cloud service providers (CSPs) are empanelled in India, which include both Indian and international companies.
Statement-II: MeghRaj is the Government of India's cloud initiative, whose purpose is to spread cloud services in the private sector.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(c) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct. As of September 2026, 30 CSPs are empanelled, including Indian companies such as Jio, TCS, BSNL, ITI, RailTel, AdaniConneX, Yotta and international companies such as Google Cloud, Oracle, Microsoft, AWS (Statement-I correct). MeghRaj is MeitY's government cloud initiative started in 2014, whose purpose is to speed up e-governance and optimise public spending on information and communication technology (ICT), not the private sector (Statement-II wrong).
Question 2. With reference to data sovereignty and cloud computing, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Domestic cloud infrastructure can support data sovereignty by strengthening control over the storage and processing of sensitive information.
Statement 2: Section 16 of the DPDP Act, 2023 empowers the Central Government to restrict, by notification, the transfer of personal data by a data fiduciary to notified countries or regions.
Statement 3: In a public cloud, the infrastructure is dedicated to a single organisation.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. According to the PIB report, domestic cloud can support data sovereignty by strengthening national control over important digital resources (Statement 1 correct). Section 16(1) empowers the Central Government to restrict the transfer of personal data to notified countries or regions by notification, and Section 16(2) clarifies that other laws in force that give higher protection or restriction on transfer will continue to apply (Statement 2 correct). Infrastructure dedicated to a single organisation is a private cloud; a public cloud's infrastructure belongs to a third-party provider and is shared by many customers (Statement 3 wrong).
October 2026
Transgender (Amendment) Act 2026: What Changed and Why It Is Challenged
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Question 1. With reference to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Through it, Section 4(2) of the original 2019 Act, which related to the right to a self-perceived gender identity, has been omitted.
Statement-II: Under it, the identity certificate will be issued by the District Magistrate after examining the medical board's recommendation.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both I and II. Through the Amendment Act, 2026, Section 4(2) of the 2019 Act has been omitted (Statement-I correct), and under the amended Section 6 the District Magistrate will issue the identity certificate after examining the medical board's recommendation (Statement-II correct).
Question 2. With reference to the legal provisions related to transgender persons, consider the following statements:
1. In NALSA v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court rejected a biological test for gender identity.
2. The new Section 18 of the Transgender Persons (Amendment) Act, 2026 makes forcing someone to assume a transgender appearance to make them beg an offence.
3. According to the Amendment Act, 2026, all persons with a self-perceived gender identity are included in the definition of "transgender person".Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. In NALSA (2014) the Court rejected a biological test and recognised self-perception (Statement 1 correct). The new Section 18 makes forcing someone to assume a transgender appearance for begging/bonded labour punishable (Statement 2 correct). The proviso of the 2026 definition makes clear that persons with a self-perceived gender identity are not included, so Statement 3 is incorrect.
October 2026
Greenland Defence Agreement 2026: Denmark, Greenland and the US
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Badrinath's Hanging Glaciers: A Scenario Assessment of Avalanche Risk
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to scenario-based assessment of ice-avalanche risk:
Statement 1: Release volume, runout and downstream exposure are assessed under low, medium and high-mobility conditions.
Statement 2: The runout of an ice avalanche is determined only by its release volume.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct
(c) Statement 1 is not correct, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not correct
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct. In the study, release area/volume, runout and downstream exposure were assessed with the RAMMS (Rapid Mass Movement Simulation) model in low, medium and high-mobility conditions (Coulomb mu, turbulent xi) - Statement 1 is correct. The differences between mobility levels in maximum height, pressure, deposition and velocity remained limited (2.3-6.7%, 2.9-3.8%, 0.9-7.4%, 1.3-1.8% respectively), that is, the runout is controlled not by volume alone but also by channel geometry and the character of the terrain - Statement 2 is not correct.
Question 2. Consider the following statements with reference to ice-avalanche risk reduction in Himalayan towns:
Statement 1: The runout of an ice avalanche is controlled not only by release volume but also by channel geometry and the character of the terrain, so site-specific risk assessment is necessary.
Statement 2: Early-warning systems, land-use planning and community awareness are components of risk reduction.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. In the study, the differences across mobility levels were found limited and the control of channel geometry and the character of the terrain on runout was shown - from this comes the recommendation of site-specific risk assessment (Statement 1 is correct). The recommendations include early-warning systems, land-use planning and community awareness (Statement 2 is correct).
Question 3. Of the three hanging-glacier sites, which is described as the most dangerous, and why?
(a) Site 1 - the greatest ice thickness
(b) Site 2 - the greatest potential release volume and downstream exposure
(c) Site 3 - the lowest slope
(d) All three carry equal risk
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Site 2 - the greatest potential release volume and downstream exposure. Site 2's potential release volume is 5.89×10⁶ cubic metres, surface slope 34.57° and bed slope 30.64°, and the downstream exposure is the greatest. The study also shows that the runout is controlled not by volume alone but also by channel geometry and terrain.
October 2026
China's 15th Five-Year Plan (2026-2030): What the Plenum Documents Decided
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Question 1. What is the period of China's 15th Five-Year Plan?
(a) 2024-2028
(b) 2025-2029
(c) 2026-2030
(d) 2027-2031
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) 2026-2030. The communique of 23 October 2025 states the 15th Plan period as 2026-2030; the goal of "socialist modernisation basically realised" by 2035 and per-capita GDP equal to medium-developed countries is also linked to it.
Question 2. What was the main agenda of the 5th plenum of the 20th Central Committee, which ended on 29 October 2026?
(a) Adopting the recommendations of the 15th Five-Year Plan
(b) A resolution on "full and strict party self-governance"
(c) Forming the National People's Congress
(d) Preparing the draft of the 14th Plan
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) A resolution on "full and strict party self-governance". According to the communique of 29 October 2026, the 5th plenum (26-29 October 2026) passed the party self-governance resolution; the 15th Plan's recommendations had already been adopted a year earlier at the fourth plenum (October 2025) - the two are separate events, and this confusion point can be asked in the exam.
Question 3. Who adopts the formal plan outline (Outline) of a five-year plan in China?
(a) The Central Committee's plenum
(b) The Politburo Standing Committee
(c) The National People's Congress (NPC)
(d) The State Council
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) The National People's Congress (NPC). The plenum's recommendations are the Party's political proposal document; the formal outline is adopted by the NPC. The two communiques available until 31 October 2026 do not confirm the date of NPC approval of the 15th Plan.
October 2026
Yamuna Cruise Preparations and Delhi's River Pollution Figures
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AI-Based Startups in IN-SPACe's AI INSPIRED Initiative
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Question 1. With reference to IN-SPACe, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is the promoter and regulator of private participation in the space sector
Statement 2: Its headquarters are in Ahmedabad
Statement 3: It is an internal division of ISROWhich of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - IN-SPACe is an autonomous nodal agency under the Department of Space, not an internal division of ISRO; it was formed in 2020 to increase private participation and its headquarters are in Ahmedabad.
Question 2. With reference to the 'AI INSPIRED' initiative, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Agnikul Cosmos and Digantara are among the winners
Statement 2: The selected institutions will receive grant-in-aid support of up to Rs 1 crore per institution
Statement 3: This initiative is under IN-SPACe's seed-fund schemeWhich of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct - according to IN-SPACe (21 October 2026), the six winners include Agnikul Cosmos, Digantara, Eon Space Labs, OrbitAID Aerospace, Omnipresent Robot Tech and TakeMe2Space; under the seed-fund scheme there is grant-in-aid support of up to Rs 6 crore in total, up to Rs 1 crore per institution.
October 2026
GEM NO. 2 Tanker: Oil Spill in the Gulf Stopped at Source
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Question 1. With reference to the GEM NO. 2 tanker episode (October 2026), consider the following statements:
1. The leak has been stopped at the source itself
2. The oil layer is concentrated near the Umm Al Quwain coast
3. As per satellite monitoring, the pollution concentration is continuously risingWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statement 3 is wrong - according to WAM (30 October 2026) the leak has stopped at the source, the oil layer is concentrated off the Umm Al Quwain coast, and the pollution concentration has fallen significantly, not risen.
Question 2. With reference to oil-spill remediation and the incident area, consider the following statements:
1. Mechanical cleaning (mechanical recovery) is the main remediation method
2. The tanker had met with an accident near the Strait of Hormuz
3. The use of chemical dispersants in the remediation is completely prohibitedWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statement 3 is wrong - chemical dispersants are being used in line with international standards and approved guidelines; the accident occurred near Hormuz on 9-10 October 2026 (BBC Verify).
October 2026
Order of Zayed II: UAE's High Honour for Indian Captain Smit Machchhar
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Question 1. With reference to the honour conferred on Captain Smit Machchhar, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: He received the UAE's First Class Order of Zayed II
Statement 2: The honour was given for ensuring the safety of passengers on the flydubai flight
Statement 3: The announcement about the honour was made by the UAE's official news agency WAMWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct - according to WAM (27 October 2026), the UAE President honoured the flydubai crew, which includes Captain Machchhar, with the First Class Order of Zayed II for the bravery shown in ensuring passenger safety.
Question 2. With reference to the flydubai flight FZ1073 incident (September 2026), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The flight was going from Dubai to Tel Aviv
Statement 2: The aircraft was landed safely at Tabuk in Saudi Arabia
Statement 3: All the passengers of the aircraft were seriously injured in the incidentWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - the crew and passengers subdued the co-pilot and ensured the aircraft's safe landing; Captain Machchhar was seriously injured, while passengers remained safe.
October 2026
Talacauvery Poaching Caught: The Kaveri's Source in the Western Ghats
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Mollisia sokpayensia: A New Fungal Species from a Rare Medicinal Plant of the Sikkim Himalaya
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NCDC's 93rd General Council: Direction to Prepare a 25-Year Roadmap
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC):
1. Its 93rd General Council meeting was held in New Delhi under the chairmanship of the Union Home and Cooperation Minister
2. In financial year 2025-26, the NCDC's net NPA was zero
3. The NCDC's presence is still limited to only 15 statesWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - as per PIB, the NCDC's presence now covers all states and Union Territories of the country; offices have reached Ladakh and the smaller states of the Northeast.
Question 2. Consider the following statements about the NCDC's 93rd General Council (October 2026):
1. The NCDC was directed to prepare a comprehensive roadmap for the next 25 years
2. In financial year 2025-26, the NCDC's disbursement was over Rs 1.27 lakh crore
3. The General Council decided to end the consortium and co-financing model with NABARDWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - as per PIB, emphasis was laid on developing consortium and co-financing models with NABARD, state cooperative banks and commercial banks, not on ending them.
October 2026
Varanasi-New Delhi Vande Bharat Sleeper: Green Flag on 31 October
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Question 1. With reference to the Varanasi-New Delhi Vande Bharat Sleeper Express, consider the following statements:
1. Its route includes Prayagraj, Kanpur Central, Aligarh and Ghaziabad
2. This service will run all seven days of the week
3. Before this, a Vande Bharat Sleeper service began on the Howrah-Guwahati corridor in January 2026Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 2 is wrong — according to PIB, the service will run six days a week (except Friday from Varanasi and Saturday from New Delhi).
Question 2. With reference to the Vande Bharat Sleeper services, consider the following statements:
1. The new service will leave Varanasi at 20:50 and reach New Delhi the next morning at 06:10
2. It will save 55 minutes on the Varanasi-New Delhi journey compared to the Shivganga Express
3. The Varanasi-New Delhi service is the country's first Vande Bharat Sleeper serviceWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong — the first Vande Bharat Sleeper service began in January 2026 on the Howrah-Guwahati corridor; this is its expansion.
October 2026
India to Host the CGIAR Science and Partnership Week 2027 (12-17 April, New Delhi)
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the CGIAR Science and Partnership Week 2027:
Statement 1: It will be held in New Delhi from 12 to 17 April 2027
Statement 2: It will be the first edition of the CGIAR Science Week
Statement 3: Its organisers are ICAR and CGIARWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3. Statement 2 is wrong - the first CGIAR Science Week was held in Nairobi (Kenya) in April 2025; New Delhi will be the second edition.
Question 2. Consider the following statements about CGIAR:
Statement 1: Its 15 research centres are active in more than 100 countries
Statement 2: Its 10 research centres are working in India
Statement 3: It is a specialised agency of the United NationsWhich of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statement 3 is wrong - CGIAR is not a United Nations agency, but an international agricultural research partnership.
October 2026
INS Srishti: New-Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) Launched in Goa
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The Arunachal Pradesh Tour of the Buddha's Sacred Relics (Piprahwa Remains): Arrival in Tawang From 31 October
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Question 1. With reference to Piprahwa, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is located in the Siddharthnagar district of Uttar Pradesh
Statement 2: In 1898 William Claxton Peppe excavated here
Statement 3: In 1971-77 the Archaeological Survey of India's excavation was led by K. M. SrivastavaWhich of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct - Piprahwa is in Siddharthnagar (Uttar Pradesh); Peppe's 1898 excavation found a reliquary, bone remains and jewels; in 1971-77 the ASI excavated under K. M. Srivastava's leadership, finding two more metal vessels from a deeper level.
Question 2. With reference to the programme sequence of the Arunachal Pradesh display of the sacred relics, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The public darshan will begin at Tawang's Gaden Namgyal Lhatse monastery
Statement 2: Bomdila's TGL monastery (Lower Gompa) and Namsai's Golden Pagoda are also display venues
Statement 3: The display of the relics will remain limited to Tawang onlyWhich of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - as per the announced programme sequence, after Tawang (1-7 November), Bomdila (8-13 November) and Namsai (14-20 November) are also display venues; on 21 November the relics will return to the National Museum, New Delhi, via Namsai-Tezu.
October 2026
PM-KISAN 24th Instalment: Over Rs 18,690 Crore to 9.34 Crore Farmers from Banaskantha
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Question 1. With reference to the PM-KISAN scheme, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The scheme began in February 2019
Statement 2: Eligible landholding farmer families are given annual assistance of ₹6,000 in three equal instalments
Statement 3: The instalment is sent directly into bank accounts through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct - PM-KISAN began in February 2019; eligible landholding farmer families receive annual assistance of ₹6,000 in three equal instalments of ₹2,000 every four months, directly into bank accounts through DBT.
Question 2. With reference to the 24th instalment and the other announcements made at the same event, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The 24th instalment was released from Banaskantha, Gujarat
Statement 2: Every eligible farmer received ₹2,000 in this instalment
Statement 3: At the same event, 12 agriculture infrastructure units and 521 horticulture clusters were dedicatedWhich of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statement 3 is wrong - at the event, 521 units of the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) were dedicated and 12 horticulture clusters were inaugurated; the statement swaps the two numbers.
October 2026
Jalaun's Secret Drug Lab: The DRI-ATS Action and the NDPS Framework
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):
Statement 1: It is a leading anti-smuggling investigative agency working under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)
Statement 2: The smuggling of narcotic substances and the exposure of secret manufacturing units come within its responsibilities
Statement 3: It is a paramilitary unit under the Ministry of Home AffairsWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - the DRI is not a paramilitary unit, but an investigative agency under the CBIC (Ministry of Finance). The Jalaun action of 29-30 October 2026 was a joint initiative of this agency and the UP ATS.
Question 2. Consider the following statements about the NDPS Act, 1985 and the related terminology:
Statement 1: Precursor chemicals are not drugs themselves, but are used in the production of prohibited drugs
Statement 2: Methaqualone is a psychotropic substance controlled under the NDPS Act
Statement 3: There is no control on the international trade of precursor chemicals under any conventionWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - precursor chemicals are internationally controlled under the 1988 United Nations Convention (against the illicit traffic in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances).
October 2026
'Diwali, the Festival of Lights': Supreme Court Strict on Enforcing the Firecracker Ban
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Delhi-NCR firecracker order of 29 October 2026:
Statement 1: Under the limited exemption, bursting crackers is permitted at fixed times on 7 and 8 November.
Statement 2: The earlier complete ban is to be restored from 9 November.
Statement 3: This order gives unconditional permission for online sale.
Choose the correct answer.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Directions A and U respectively state the limited-time permission and the return of the ban. Direction I prohibits online sale.
Question 2. Consider the following statements in the context of religious freedom and the environment:
Statement 1: Article 25(1) is subject to fixed constitutional limits, including health.
Statement 2: The right to a healthy and pollution-free environment is linked to Article 21.
Choose the correct answer.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Paragraph 22 of the order makes both constitutional bases clear. Religious freedom is not an unlimited right above the other provisions of Part III.
October 2026
National Social Security Board: The New Command for Gig and Unorganised Workers
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the National Social Security Board (NSSB):
1. It has been constituted under Section 6(1) of the Social Security Code, 2020
2. For gig and platform workers, the same board will work under Section 114(6)
3. The board's term is five years and its chairperson is the Union Finance MinisterWhich of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statement 3 is wrong - according to the notification, the board's term is three years and the chairperson is the Union Minister of Labour and Employment, not the Finance Minister.
Question 2. Consider the following statements about the Social Security Code, 2020:
1. For the first time it gives the definitions of gig worker, platform worker and aggregator
2. It is a consolidation of nine old central social security laws
3. It is one of the four labour codes in force since 21 November 2025Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct - the four labour codes are in force since 21 November 2025; the Social Security Code merges nine laws and contains the first statutory definitions of gig/platform workers and aggregators.
October 2026
Shintaphu Lake Outburst: Flood Warning in the Sankosh Basin and the GLOF Challenge
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sankosh river:
Statement 1: Emerging from Bhutan, it flows through the border region of West Bengal and Assam
Statement 2: The Mochu (Mo) river is connected to its upper basin's water system
Statement 3: It flows towards the Brahmaputra's tributary Manas and falls directly into the seaWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. The Sankosh emerges from Bhutan and passes through Assam's Dhubri and West Bengal's Alipurduar areas; these same two districts are in the 30 October 2026 warning. Statement 3 is wrong - the Sankosh goes on to join the Brahmaputra system; it does not fall directly into the sea.
Question 2. Consider the following statements with reference to a glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF):
Statement 1: In it, the water of a glacial lake ringed by a moraine dam suddenly rushes into the lower valley
Statement 2: In October 2023, the Chungthang dam of the Teesta-III project was damaged by just such an event at Sikkim's Lhonak Lake
Statement 3: A GLOF occurs only in regions where active volcanoes lie beneath glaciersWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong - a GLOF has no necessary connection with volcanoes; it happens when the natural dams of lakes formed by glacier melt break. The Lhonak event (2023) is a proven example.
October 2026
ARISE Cities Forum 2026: Cities' Climate Strategy from the Delhi Declaration to COP31
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Delhi Declaration 2026:
1. It was adopted at the ARISE Cities Forum 2026, which was organised by ICLEI South Asia in collaboration with NIUA.
2. It is a binding international treaty under the Paris Agreement.
3. The '35 by 2035' resolve endorsed in it means raising the share of electricity in global final energy consumption to 35% by 2035.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Statement 2 is wrong - the Delhi Declaration is a voluntary shared commitment of cities, not a binding treaty. Statements 1 and 3 are verified from the declaration text and the PIB release.
Question 2. To which destination is the ARISE Delhi Declaration 2026 proposed to be carried forward?
(a) COP30, Belem
(b) COP31, Antalya
(c) UNCCD COP17
(d) CBD COP17
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). According to both the declaration text and the PIB release, the declaration will be taken to COP31 (Antalya, Turkiye); the UNCCD/CBD COP17 references are in the context of Convention synergy.
October 2026
Green Hydrogen: 23 Purchase Agreements, Production Is the Next Test
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1. Consider the following statements about offtake agreements for green hydrogen:
Statement 1: These can be tied to the purchase of a producer's future supply.
Statement 2: An agreement being signed is equal to actual production and export having happened.
Statement 3: It is proper to add the tonne quantities of ammonia and hydrogen treating them as equal.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1. The agreement is tied to future supply. The actual position of production, the plant and exports is checked separately. Tonne quantities of different products are not the same quantity of hydrogen.
2. What is the SIGHT programme related to?
(a) Only marine fisheries
(b) Incentives for electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production
(c) Only petroleum export duty
(d) Satellite-launch insurance
See the answer and explanation
Answer: (b). SIGHT is the National Green Hydrogen Mission's financial incentive programme, whose two principal mechanisms are tied to domestic electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production.
October 2026
"Coastal Resilience: Joining Ecosystems, Livelihoods and Local Planning"
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Question 1. With reference to the GCF-ECRICC project, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Its target area is in Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha.
Statement 2: It joins the restoration of coastal ecosystems with climate-adaptive livelihoods.
Statement 3: Its purpose is to build only concrete sea barriers at every place.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. The project joins natural ecosystems, livelihoods and risk-informed governance. Building only concrete barriers is not its purpose.
Question 2. Which is the most appropriate example of ecosystem-based climate adaptation?
(a) Planting the same species on every coast without risk assessment
(b) Joining mangrove restoration with local livelihoods and coastal risk planning
(c) Saving natural ecosystems and shutting down all warning systems
(d) Declaring a project complete as soon as the grant is approved
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Natural services are used to reduce people's climate vulnerability. Assessment of local conditions and other protective measures also remain necessary.
October 2026
Israel Election: Blocs Short of a Majority, How Will a Government Form?
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Question 1. With reference to government formation in Israel, consider the following statements:
1. After consulting the representatives of the parliamentary parties, the President assigns the task of forming a government to a member of the Knesset.
2. The leader of the largest party automatically becomes Prime Minister as soon as the election results come in.
3. The initial time for forming a government is 28 days, and the President can give an extension of up to a total of 14 days.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. The President's role and the time limits are clear in the Knesset's official introduction. Being the largest party does not by itself confer the right to form a government or to become Prime Minister.
Question 2. What is the basic meaning of proportional representation?
(a) Giving every party an equal number of seats
(b) Allotting seats to parties on the basis of the proportion of votes received
(c) Giving all the seats to the largest party
(d) Imposing direct presidential rule in place of an elected parliament
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The basis of this system is the relation between the vote share and the seat share. Rules such as the electoral threshold, eligibility and the method of allotment affect the actual outcome.
October 2026
Kochi Accident and Section 199A of the Motor Vehicles Act
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Digital Arrest: Supreme Court Asks RBI to Provide for Compensating Victims Where Due Diligence Fails
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Review the role of Supreme Court monitoring in fixing the accountability of banks and the financial regulator for protecting victims in cyber fraud such as digital arrest. What should be the policy balance in this direction? (15 marks, 250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Explain the nature of digital arrest, that is, making people transfer money by creating the fear of arrest while posing as police or government officials, and use the suo motu case as an example, since the final direction has not yet come.
Main Body: On one side, put the due-diligence responsibility of banks, a system to stop suspicious transactions and informing the police. On the other side, put the regulator's consultation process, the effect of haste on consumer convenience, the role of intermediary platforms and public awareness. Note that these are points of analysis, not claims of the reports.
Conclusion: Suggest a balance of clear standards, time-bound rules, coordination among banks, the regulator, police and platforms, and awareness.
Question 1. With reference to the hearing in the digital arrest case, consider the following statements:
1. According to the reports, the bench stressed a mechanism for compensating victims for failure of due diligence in the RBI's proposed KYC directions.
2. According to the reports, the bench asked the states for information on FIRs registered and the status of investigation in such cases.
3. According to the reports, the Court passed a final order for banks to pay compensation.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 match the reports of The Hindu and Livemint. Statement 3 is incorrect, because the bench made remarks and asked the RBI for a mechanism. The reports have no final order on compensation.
Question 2. In the context of cyber fraud, what is a "mule account"?
(a) An account used to receive or transfer money obtained from illegal activities
(b) A savings account opened only for children
(c) A Jan Dhan account with zero balance
(d) An account made for receiving government subsidies
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). According to the Livemint report, mule accounts are used to receive or transfer money obtained from illegal activities, including cyber crime.
October 2026
Rajnath Singh at ADMM-Plus: Offer to Share Counter-Terrorism Experience, Maritime Security and Defence 'Youth Bridge' Proposal
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about ADMM-Plus:
Statement 1: India and Malaysia are co-chairs of the Experts' Working Group on Counter-Terrorism for the 2024 to 2027 cycle.
Statement 2: India has declared 2026 as the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation.
Statement 3: The establishment of the defence 'Youth Bridge' was approved at the meeting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statements 1 and 2 match the PIB release. Statement 3 is wrong because the Defence Minister had proposed the 'Youth Bridge'; the release does not mention its approval.
Question 2. India has declared 2026 as what?
(a) ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation
(b) ASEAN-India Year of Digital Cooperation
(c) ASEAN-India Year of Tourism
(d) ASEAN-India Year of Youth
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). According to the PIB release, the Defence Minister described 2026 as the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation and referred to the second ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise.
October 2026
Supreme Court: Karnataka's 2022 Validating Act Unconstitutional; Legislature Cannot Directly Annul a Final Decision
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Clarify the test of validity of validating laws made by a legislature to end the effect of a judicial decision. In cases of corruption in recruitment, how can a balance be struck between the interests of candidates not found tainted and the purity of public service?
Answer Outline
Introduction: explain the separation of powers and the meaning of validating laws, and place the judgment on Karnataka's 2022 Act as an example.
Main Body: state the principle quoted in the reports that the basis of a decision can be changed, but a final decision cannot be directly annulled. Then give the balancing remedies, such as distinguishing tainted from untainted candidates, a one-time relief like age relaxation, and a time-bound new recruitment. Keep in mind that these remedies are analysis, not claims of the judgment.
Conclusion: suggest a balance of transparency in the recruitment process, timely examination results and respect for judicial decisions.
Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's judgment related to the selection of Karnataka's 2011 batch of gazetted probationers:
1. According to the reports, the court declared the 2022 validating Act unconstitutional.
2. According to the court's statement quoted in the reports, the legislature can change the basis of a previous decision but cannot directly annul a final decision.
3. According to the reports, the court directed that the candidates appointed on the basis of the Act be given retrospective appointment with back wages.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 are correct according to the reports of The Hindu and LiveLaw. Statement 3 is wrong, because according to the reports, even on selection, seniority will be counted only from the date of appointment and no back wages or retrospective appointment will be given.
Question 2. According to the reports, which relief did the Supreme Court give in the new recruitment to candidates not found tainted and to the appellants?
(a) Retrospective appointment with back wages
(b) A one-time age relaxation
(c) Seniority from the date of 2011
(d) Direct appointment without examination
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). According to the reports, they will get a one-time age relaxation to sit in the new recruitment. On selection, seniority will be from the date of appointment and no back wages or retrospective appointment will be given.
October 2026
"Supreme Court: Sanjay Raut and Nikhil Wagle Ordered to Appear on 17 November in Alleged Contempt Case"
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Discuss the balance between the court's power of contempt and citizens' freedom of expression. What cautions should there be in the use of this power with reference to criticism of the judiciary?
Answer Outline
Introduction: state Article 129 and the purpose of contempt power, and keep the current case only as an example, since it has not been decided yet.
Main Body: keep the protection of the court's dignity and public trust as one side and freedom of expression and constructive criticism as the other. Mention procedural safeguards such as the Attorney General's consent, notice and the opportunity of hearing. Note that these points are analysis, not the report's claims about this case.
Conclusion: suggest a balance of restrained use of the power, clear standards and open, responsible public debate.
Question 1. With reference to the Supreme Court's contempt power, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Under Articles 129 and 142, the Supreme Court has the power to punish for its contempt.
Statement 2: Per the 1975 rules, in criminal contempt on any person's petition the written consent of the Attorney General or the Solicitor General is required.
Statement 3: Per the reports, the Court ordered both Raut and Wagle to appear virtually.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 are correct per the Supreme Court's website. Statement 3 is wrong, because per the reports Raut is to appear in person and Wagle virtually.
Question 2. Per the reports, in what form has the Supreme Court asked Sanjay Raut to appear in the contempt case?
(a) Virtually on 17 November
(b) In person at 2 pm on 17 November
(c) In person on 28 October
(d) With full exemption from appearance
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Per the reports, Raut is to appear in person at 2 pm on 17 November and Wagle virtually. The exemption from personal appearance was in the 16 October notice, not in this order.
October 2026
Index of Services Production: Growth in 17 of 19 Sub-Sectors in August 2026 (Experimental Series)
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Question 1. With reference to the Index of Services Production (ISP), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: For August 2026 its base year is 2024-25.
Statement 2: This series is being published on an experimental basis.
Statement 3: In August 2026, all 19 sub-sectors grew compared with August 2025.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 match the PIB release. Statement 3 is wrong, because air transport (-9.6%) and arts, entertainment and recreation services (-4.7%) declined.
Question 2. In the ISP for August 2026, which sub-sector recorded the highest growth compared with August 2025?
(a) Accommodation and food
(b) Retail trade
(c) Banking
(d) Real estate
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). In PIB's table, the growth of retail trade is 19.9%. The index level of accommodation and food (145.3) is the highest, but its growth is 11.9%. Banking's growth is 14.9% and real estate's 17.6%.
October 2026
19th Meeting of the Ganga Flood Control Board: GFCC Restructuring and a Risk-Based Master Plan
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Two Years of Ayushman Vay Vandana: 23.46 Lakh Authorised Admissions, Rs 5,668.80 Crore
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Question 1. With reference to Ayushman Vay Vandana, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It gives the benefit of AB PM-JAY to all citizens aged 70 years and above, irrespective of socio-economic status.
Statement 2: A separate top-up cover of up to Rs 5 lakh per year is available for 70+ members of families already covered under AB PM-JAY.
Statement 3: Till 20 October 2026, the largest share of authorised value was of cataract surgery.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statements 1 and 2 match the PIB release. Statement 3 is wrong, because cataract surgery is the most frequently taken procedure, while the largest share by value is PTCA's.
Question 2. Till 20 October 2026, which procedure was reported as the most frequently taken under Ayushman Vay Vandana?
(a) Cataract surgery
(b) PTCA
(c) Chronic haemodialysis
(d) Knee replacement
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a). According to the release, 4.71 lakh cataract surgeries took place, about 20.1% of authorised procedures. Haemodialysis is second with about 2.90 lakh.
October 2026
PMEGP: Rs 1,000 Crore Margin Money Subsidy Released, 11,333 Beneficiaries
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Question 1. Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP):
Statement 1: It is administered by the Ministry of MSME and implemented at the national level by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission.
Statement 2: The Rs 1,000 crore margin money subsidy released recently will help 11,333 beneficiaries.
Statement 3: More than 8.38 lakh enterprises have been set up only from this recently released instalment.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 match the PIB release. Statement 3 is wrong, because more than 8.38 lakh enterprises is the cumulative number from 2014-15 to date. This instalment will help 11,333 beneficiaries.
Question 2. What is the number of micro enterprises set up with bank-sanctioned loans under PMEGP from financial year 2014-15 to date, as stated?
(a) 11,333
(b) 25,895
(c) More than 1.02 lakh
(d) More than 8.38 lakh
See answer and explanation
Answer: (d). According to the release, more than 8.38 lakh micro enterprises have been set up from 2014-15 to date. 11,333 are the beneficiaries of this instalment, 25,895 are the enterprises assisted in financial year 2026-27 up to October, and more than 1.02 lakh is the employment expected from this instalment.
October 2026
Khelo India Sports Goods Manufacturing Scheme: ₹1,856.67 Crore Approved
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"Container Manufacturing Promotion Scheme: Rs 10,000 Crore Outlay and Three Components"
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Question 1. With reference to the Container Manufacturing Promotion Scheme (CMPS), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Its outlay is Rs 10,000 crore until financial year 2039-40.
Statement 2: This scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2026-27.
Statement 3: The interest-assistance component gives a 3% annual subvention on working-capital loans.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. Statements 1 and 2 match the PIB press release. Statement 3 is wrong, because the press release describes the 3% interest subvention as being on eligible term (capital) loans, not working-capital loans.
Question 2. Which component of CMPS has the highest outlay?
(a) Interest assistance
(b) Operating-expense assistance
(c) Testing and certification assistance
(d) All three have equal outlay
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The operating-expense assistance has an outlay of Rs 8,891 crore, while interest assistance is Rs 859 crore and testing and certification assistance is Rs 150 crore.
October 2026
Bihar's Drug-Free Bihar Campaign: 27 October to 26 November, Figures and Limits
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Explain the balance of strict enforcement and community-based awareness in campaigns against narcotic substances. In this context, what can be the limits of a state-level campaign?
Answer and Explanation
Introduction: Give the direction of Article 47 and the example of Bihar's month-long campaign.
Main Body: Describe enforcement (action on the supply chain, seizures) and demand reduction (awareness, de-addiction help, participation of communities and self-help groups) as complements. Among the limits, carry the campaign's short duration, the illusion of success from seizure figures, the capacity of treatment facilities and inter-state coordination on cross-border supply. Note that these limits are analysis, not the reports' claims.
Conclusion: Suggest a balanced model with continuous monitoring, access to treatment and measurable outcomes.
Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to the directive principles and Bihar's campaign:
Statement 1: Article 47 expects the state to endeavour to bring about the prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating substances injurious to health.
Statement 2: According to reports, Bihar's campaign will run from 27 October to 26 November 2026.
Statement 3: Article 47 is a fundamental right directly enforceable in a court.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See the Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Statement 1 is correct per the text of the Constitution and statement 2 per the reports in The Hindu and Indian Express. Statement 3 is wrong, because Article 47 is a directive principle, not a fundamental right.
Question 2. According to the statement (The Hindu/PTI), how much charas was seized in Bihar in 2025?
(a) 282 kg
(b) 400 kg
(c) 65 kg
(d) 77 kg
See the Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). According to the statement, charas seized rose from 282 kg in 2024 to 400 kg in 2025. 65 kg is the 2025 heroin seizure and 77 kg the opium seizure.
October 2026
Cheetah Death in Kuno: Pellet Injuries, Two Arrests and the STF Probe's Findings
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What security challenges do reintroduced species face when they move outside a protected area? Examine the institutional response with reference to the recent incident in Kuno.
Answer Outline
Introduction: briefly present Project Cheetah and the incident of 25-27 October 2026 in Kuno with the PIB facts.
Main Body: present the cheetah reaching the territorial forests of Morena and Sheopur outside the protected area as the challenge. In the institutional response, write about the treatment, the state's STF, the central team with NTCA and WCCB officers and the review of security protocols. Keep in mind that no finding is yet available on who fired the pellets, the circumstances and the intention. Suggestions such as human-wildlife coexistence and the role of the local community are analysis, not facts of the release.
Conclusion: give a balanced conclusion on the inquiry's findings, monitoring and Centre-state coordination for safety outside the protected area.
Question 1. With reference to the PIB release on the death of the Kuno cheetah, consider the following statements:
1. The cheetah was found injured in territorial forests outside the protected area of Kuno National Park.
2. The release concluded that the cheetah was killed with the intention of poaching.
3. The central team includes officers of the NTCA and the WCCB.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (c). Statements 1 and 3 are correct according to the PIB release. Statement 2 is incorrect, because the release gives the cause of death as gun pellet injuries, but draws no conclusion on who fired the pellets, in what circumstances and with what intention, or on it being poaching.
Question 2. In which city's veterinary facility did the emergency surgery of the injured cheetah take place?
(a) Bhopal
(b) Jabalpur
(c) Gwalior
(d) Sheopur
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). According to PIB, the cheetah was given intensive treatment and emergency surgery at the veterinary facility in Jabalpur.
October 2026
"Pradhan Mantri Viksit Gram Swaraj Yojana: A Rs 7,395.55 Crore Panchayat-Centric Scheme"
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Explain the impact on local governance of the initiative of holistic plan-making for panchayats and a shared digital platform. What implementation challenges can it face?
Answer Outline
Introduction: place PM VGSY as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for 2026-27 to 2030-31 and state the aim of making the panchayat the centre of planning.
Main Body: write the GPDP, shared information on eGramSwaraj, communication through the Gram Sabha, training and accounts transparency through AuditOnline as components. Add the emphasis on better use of Finance Commission grants and on OSR. Among challenges, keep the states' annual action plans and the approval process, dependence on contractual human resources and the gap in digital access and capacity. Note that these challenges are inference-based analysis, not claims of the press release.
Conclusion: give a balanced conclusion by naming states' cooperation, training and the financial autonomy of local bodies as conditions of success.
Question 1. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Gram Swaraj Yojana (PM VGSY), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme approved for 2026-27 to 2030-31.
Statement 2: The scheme will create permanent posts at the state, district and block levels.
Statement 3: The scheme extends to the traditional rural local bodies of areas outside Part IX as well.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 3 are correct per the PIB press release. Statement 2 is wrong, because per the press release no permanent posts will be created in the scheme; only contractual human resources may be engaged as needed.
Question 2. The duration of PM VGSY matches which period?
(a) The Fifteenth Finance Commission's period
(b) The Sixteenth Finance Commission's period
(c) The Twelfth Five-Year Plan
(d) The period of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment's enforcement
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Per PIB, the scheme is for 2026-27 to 2030-31, which matches the period of the Sixteenth Finance Commission.
October 2026
Inter-State Council (Amendment) Order, 2026 and Article 263
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India's Concern over the F-16 Package: What Came Up at the Rajnath-Hegseth Meeting
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Examine the opportunities of technology sharing in the India-US defence partnership and the concerns arising from military assistance to a third party. (250 words)
Answer Outline
Introduction: Give the context of the ten-year defence framework and the review held in Cebu.
Main Body: Write about the opportunities of operational readiness, technology sharing and defence-industrial integration. Then present India's objection to the F-16 package, as reported, and the apprehension of technology reaching a third country.
Conclusion: Present, in a balanced manner, the shared stand on terrorism and the need to keep channels of dialogue open.
October 2026
Maharashtra's Rural Unmarried Youth Plan a Statewide Movement: The Reported Demands
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1. Consider the following statements with reference to the demands of Maharashtra's rural unmarried youth in the news on 28 October 2026:
- An all-religion marriage registration bureau under the Social Welfare Department has been demanded.
- A guarantee of remunerative prices for farm produce has been demanded.
- The state government has accepted these demands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 match the demands given in the report's sub-headline. Statement 3 is not supported on the basis of the report; the report does not mention acceptance of the demands.
October 2026
Salt Marshes and High Storm Waves: What a Large Flume Experiment Shows
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India and Mexico Sign Terms of Reference for an Early Trade Agreement
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1. With reference to the negotiations on the India-Mexico Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA), consider the following statements:
- The two countries have signed the Terms of Reference (ToR) for the negotiations.
- The ToR include areas such as rules of origin and dispute settlement.
- With these signatures, the PTA has come into force and tariff cuts have been decided.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 tally with PIB's release. Statement 3 is wrong, because ToR set the framework of negotiations. They do not bring an agreement into force and do not decide concessions.
2. Which of the following areas is included in the Terms of Reference (ToR) of the PTA negotiations?
(a) Mandatory patent reform on intellectual property
(b) Sanitary and phytosanitary measures
(c) Coordination of the currency exchange rate
(d) A double-taxation-avoidance treaty
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). According to PIB, the ToR include market access for goods, rules of origin, customs procedures, dispute settlement, SPS, technical barriers to trade and trade remedies.
October 2026
Index of Industrial Production: 6.7% Growth in September 2026, Mining Contracts
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1. With reference to the IIP for September 2026, consider the following statements:
- The quick estimate of the IIP is released on the 28th of every month, or on the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
- In September 2026, the mining and quarrying sector recorded a year-on-year contraction.
- The quick estimate for September 2026 is the final figure and will never be revised later.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 are correct. According to PIB, the quick estimate comes on the 28th, and mining and quarrying recorded (-) 6.2%. Statement 3 is wrong, because quick estimates can change in later releases under the revision policy, as the final revision of August 2026 shows.
2. In the use-based classification for September 2026, the fastest growth rate was recorded in which category?
(a) Primary goods
(b) Capital goods
(c) Intermediate goods
(d) Consumer non-durablesSee Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Growth of 12.2% was recorded in intermediate goods, 10.4% in capital goods, 4.0% in primary goods and 1.4% in consumer non-durables.
October 2026
Gene-Edited Rice: ICAR's Two Varieties, the SDN Exemption and the Path of Apomixis
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1. With reference to ICAR's gene-edited rice varieties, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala) is based on Samba Mahsuri and its CKX2 gene has been edited.
Statement 2: In Pusa DST Rice 1, the DST gene linked to drought and salinity tolerance has been edited.
Statement 3: These varieties got exemption from the biosafety rules of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 because every type of gene editing is automatically exempt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 are correct - ICAR-IIRR's DRR Dhan 100 (Kamala) is based on Samba Mahsuri and its CKX2 gene is edited; in Pusa DST Rice 1 (ICAR-IARI) the DST gene is edited. Statement 3 is wrong - the exemption applies only to the SDN-1 and SDN-2 categories, not to every type of gene editing.
2. With reference to apomixis, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: In it, the plant produces seed without fertilisation.
Statement 2: Because of it, a hybrid plant's qualities can persist into the next generation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2See answer and explanation
Answer: (c). In apomixis, seeds are produced without fertilisation, so the hybrid plant's qualities (hybrid vigour) can persist into the next generation. Both statements are correct.
October 2026
Mineral Exchange Rules 2026: A New Framework for the Mineral Market
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Austria: A Partnership from Technology to Skills
Read the full article →October 2026
Hepatitis B: Silencing Persistent Viral DNA
Read the full article →October 2026
Tawang Tourism Mart: From Local Business to the Global Market
Read the full article →October 2026
FCRA Amendment Bill 2026 (Pending, in JPC): The Rule on Assets When a Certificate Ends
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
1. With reference to the FCRA Amendment Bill 2026 (introduced text), consider the following statements:
Statement 1: On cancellation, surrender, or cessation under Section 14B of a certificate, the foreign contribution and its assets vest provisionally in the designated authority.
Statement 2: The Bill has become an Act and is in force.
Statement 3: If a new certificate, renewal or restoration is not obtained within the prescribed period, the vesting becomes permanent.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 3 match the Bill's text. Statement 2 is wrong, because the Bill is with the JPC and this article's checks found no source of its passage.
2. With reference to Section 14B, consider the following situations:
Statement 1: No renewal application was made on expiry of the validity period.
Statement 2: The Central Government rejected the renewal application.
Statement 3: The organisation itself surrendered the certificate.
In which of the above situations is a certificate deemed 'ceased' under Section 14B?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 are Section 14B cases. Surrender is the separate route of Section 14A, although assets vest provisionally after that too.
October 2026
RELIEF Component-II Deadline Extended to 31 March 2027: 95% Risk Cover for Exporters Under ECGC
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1. With reference to Component-II of RELIEF, consider the following statements:
- Its deadline has been extended to 31 March 2027.
- It encourages taking ECGC cover and provides 95 percent risk cover.
- Energy shipments are included in its cover.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 2 match the release. Statement 3 is wrong, because the cover includes FCL, LCL and reefer containers, and energy shipments are not included.
2. With reference to RELIEF, consider the following statements:
- It is a time-bound intervention under the Export Promotion Mission, which began on 19 March 2026.
- The benefit of Component-II applies to ECGC policies taken on or after 16 March 2026.
- Claims under Component-II are filed through ECGC's customer portal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (d). All three statements match the PIB release.
October 2026
First Global Red List Assessment of Coral Reef Ecosystems: 96% Critically Endangered
Read the full article →October 2026
Free Bus Travel and Women's Mobility: What the Time Use Surveys Show
Read the full article →October 2026
New Food Colour Guidelines in Uttar Pradesh: Banned Colours, Limits and Rules for Street Vendors
Read the full article →October 2026
Himachal CEC Report: Tourism Carrying Capacity, Hill Roads and Afforestation
Read the full article →October 2026
India's LNG Imports from Qatar: A Jump in Provisional Data, the Risk to the Supply Route
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
1. With reference to the news report on LNG imports, consider the following statements:
- Comparing the provisional figures of the first 25 days of October with the whole of September is not a comparison of equal periods.
- According to the report, Qatar was India's largest LNG supplier for 1-25 October.
- According to the report, India's total LNG imports in 1-25 October stood at 2.51 mt.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). In the report, the United States is first and Qatar second, so statement 2 is wrong. Statements 1 and 3 accord with the report.
2. Consider the following statements:
- LNG is carried in an ultra-cold state, so its transfer between ships has been described as more complex than that of crude oil.
- 'Dark transit' means passing with a ship's identification signals switched off.
- The claims of Qatar's dark transit in the report are based on industry sources and experts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (d). All three statements accord with the article. These claims are the report's, not of any official confirmation.
October 2026
'Punah Bharan' App: How to Choose the Right Site for Groundwater Recharge
Read the full article →October 2026
India's Next Investment Cycle: Building Energy Efficiency and the Carbon Future
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
1. With reference to the 86% estimate in NITI Aayog's buildings-sector report, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It relates to that part of the building stock that will exist in 2070 which is yet to be built.
Statement 2: The rate of demolition of existing buildings has also been taken into account in it.
Statement 3: It means that 86% of the buildings in present-day India are incomplete.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (a). This is a projection of the future building stock. It should not be understood as a count of currently incomplete buildings.
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: ENS 2024 relates to residential buildings.
Statement 2: A building's low electricity consumption by itself proves zero emissions across its entire life cycle.
Statement 3: India's green steel taxonomy is based on emissions intensity.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and explanation
Answer: (b). Besides operational energy, the emissions of material and the construction process are also included in the life cycle. Treating green steel as zero-emission steel is also not correct.
October 2026
Jaishankar's Azerbaijan Visit: Dialogue, Energy and Cultural Contact
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1. Baku, the capital of Azerbaijan, is located on the coast of which water body?
(a) Caspian Sea
(b) Red Sea
(c) Baltic Sea
(d) Mediterranean SeaAnswer and Explanation
Answer: (a). Baku is in the southern part of the Absheron Peninsula on the Caspian coast. Azerbaijan is in the eastern part of the South Caucasus.
2. Which statement about India-Azerbaijan relations is correct?
(a) Diplomatic relations between the two countries were established for the first time in October 2026
(b) The 2024 trade figures given in the MEA's 2025 brief are by themselves the latest figures of 2026
(c) Discussion of political and economic cooperation is by itself proof of a new agreement signed
(d) Diplomatic relations were established in 1992; the 2026 visit discussed further cooperationAnswer and Explanation
Answer: (d). Relations were established on 28 February 1992. The official account of 23 October 2026 describes talks on cooperation, not proof of a new agreement in every area.
October 2026
Lake-Terminating Glaciers: A New Global Study on Mass Loss
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1. What does calving mean in the context of glaciers?
(a) Blocks of ice breaking away from the terminus of a glacier
(b) A glacier growing only in length every year
(c) Sea water freezing completely
(d) A volcano forming under a glacier's rock bedAnswer and explanation
Answer: (a). In calving, blocks of ice break away from the glacier snout. Glaciers ending in lakes or the ocean are its leading examples. It is not just another name for melting.
2. Which statement about the study's findings is correct?
(a) Only lake-terminating glaciers are 3.2% of the total count
(b) The 57% figure is a measurement of every glacier's immediate velocity in 2026
(c) In the adjusted comparison, the area-normalised mass loss of lake-terminating glaciers was found to be higher than that of land-terminating glaciers
(d) Higher flow velocity and greater melting are always the same quantityAnswer and explanation
Answer: (c). It is a statistical comparison. 3.2% is the combined share of the lake, ocean and ice-shelf categories. Velocity and mass loss are separate indicators.
October 2026
G20 in Atlanta: The Shared Question of Economy and Security
Read the full article →October 2026
Equality in Sentencing, Room for Discretion: The Sentencing Council Proposal
Read the full article →October 2026
The Growing Warmth of El Nino: How to Read the WMO Forecast
Read the full article →October 2026
From Kerala to Keralam: The Name Change Act, 2026 and the Constitutional Process
Read the full article →October 2026
School Distance, Safe Access and the Right to Education
Read the full article →October 2026
Promises on Biodiversity, the Question of Implementation: India's Path at COP17
Read the full article →October 2026
Paris Promises, an American Order and Climate Justice on the Margins
Read the full article →October 2026
India's Power Capacity and the Challenge of Day-Night Balance
Read the full article →October 2026
Industrial Pollution in the Jojari-Luni: The Challenge of Environmental Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
DPDP Law and the News Publishers' Petition: Supreme Court Notice to the Centre
Read the full article →October 2026
New York City's 'Click-to-Cancel' Rule: Making It Easy to Cancel a Subscription
Read the full article →October 2026
National Household Travel Survey (NHTS) 2026: India's First Look at Everyday and Overnight Travel
Read the full article →October 2026
Double Fortified Salt (DFS) and Anaemia: The Hindu's Proposal, the FSSAI Standard and the Challenges of Implementation
Read the full article →October 2026
Subansiri Upper (Menga) Hydroelectric Project: Violence During Shutdown, Public Hearing Cancelled and Proposed Project Facts
Read the full article →October 2026
Keralam Senior Citizens (Care and Protection of Rights) Bill, 2026: What the Assembly-Passed Bill Proposes
Read the full article →October 2026
E100 and Flex-Fuel Vehicles: What Changed and What Did Not in MoRTH's New Notification G.S.R. 911(E)
Read the full article →October 2026
DAC Grants In-Principle Approval to ₹2.12 Lakh Crore Proposals: What AoN and 82% Indian Industry Mean
Read the full article →October 2026
Integrated Military Logistics Framework for Theatre Commands: What the Plan Is and What Remains
Read the full article →October 2026
The DPDP Act and Health Data: Training in Hospitals Before Compliance
Read the full article →October 2026
IMF's Srinivasan: Rupee Flexibility, the Skills Mismatch and Jobs in the Age of AI
Read the full article →October 2026
DU's One-Year Master's: A Seat Crunch Before the First Four-Year Undergraduate Batch
Read the full article →October 2026
OBC Creamy Layer: Pending Selection and Old Rights
Read the full article →October 2026
Fertiliser Imbalance, Soil Health, and Subsidy Reform: The Four-Step Debate
Read the full article →October 2026
Manipur's Committee of All 36 Communities: The Question of Inclusive Peace-Building
Read the full article →October 2026
The National Media Council Proposal: Recognition of Journalists and the Press-Freedom Debate
Read the full article →October 2026
Tumaini Trial: First Participant Vaccinated in the Phase 2/3 Trial of a Bundibugyo Virus Vaccine in Bunia, DRC
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Question 1. Which vaccine is included as the first evaluated vaccine candidate in the Tumaini trial?
(a) BCG
(b) Ervebo
(c) Covishield
(d) OPV
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Ervebo. It is the vaccine licensed for the Ebola virus (EBOV) and is the first candidate to be evaluated against Bundibugyo in Tumaini.
Question 2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Tumaini trial:
I. It is an adaptive platform trial.
II. In it, high-risk contacts are evaluated through ring vaccination.
III. An approved vaccine for the Bundibugyo virus is already available.Which of the statements are correct?
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) I, II and III
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) Only I and II. Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is wrong, because there is as yet no approved vaccine for the Bundibugyo virus.
Question 3. Who are the co-sponsors of the Tumaini trial?
(a) INRB and the University of Antwerp
(b) ICMR and AIIMS
(c) CDC and NIH
(d) Only WHO
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) INRB and the University of Antwerp. These two are the co-leaders and co-sponsors of the trial. The DRC's Ministry of Health provides national leadership and monitoring.
October 2026
Ladakh Becomes India's First 100% Organic Union Territory
Read the full article →October 2026
Saidongar-1 Pumped Storage Project (Maharashtra)
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Question 1. In which State is the much-discussed Saidongar-1 Pumped Storage Project proposed?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttarakhand
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Maharashtra. The Saidongar-1 (Karjat) Pumped Storage Project is proposed in Karjat taluka of Maharashtra's Raigad district; the environment-clearance documents mention the villages Potal, Saidongar, Ambot and others.
Question 2. Who is the proponent of the Saidongar-1 Pumped Storage Project?
(a) NHPC Limited
(b) SJVN Limited
(c) Torrent Power
(d) NTPC Limited
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Torrent Power. The project's proponent is Torrent PSH3 Private Limited, a subsidiary of Torrent Power Limited (MPCB/MoEFCC documents). NHPC, SJVN and NTPC are public-sector hydropower companies; they have no connection with this project.
Question 3. With reference to the Saidongar-1 project, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a 3,000 megawatt capacity open-loop pumped storage project.
Statement 2: It is located inside the Bhimashankar Wildlife Sanctuary.
Statement 3: In pumped storage, water is pumped up to the upper reservoir with surplus electricity and power is generated at the time of demand.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3. According to the environment-clearance documents, it is a 3,000 MW off-stream open-loop pumped storage project. Statement 2 is wrong - the project is not inside the Bhimashankar sanctuary; it is about 16 km away and stated to be outside the notified ESZ; viral claims of "felling inside the sanctuary" were found false in fact-checks. Statement 3 is the basic principle of pumped storage.
October 2026
Judicial Restraint: The Limits of a Sitting Judge's Public Speech - the Bhuyan Controversy
Read the full article →October 2026
$25 Billion Penalty on Meta: New Mexico's Historic Win in the Cambridge Analytica Case
Read the full article →October 2026
Brazil Election: Lula Wins a Fourth Term and PM Modi Congratulates
Read the full article →October 2026
C-DOT's Sixth Centre of Excellence at IIT (BHU): Research on 6G and Quantum Communication
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Question 1. Where has C-DOT's sixth Centre of Excellence been established?
(a) IIT Kanpur
(b) IIT Hyderabad
(c) IIT (BHU) Varanasi
(d) IISc Bengaluru
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) IIT (BHU) Varanasi. The earlier five centres are with IIT Kanpur, IIT Gandhinagar, IIT Roorkee, IIT Hyderabad, and IISc Bengaluru (FSID).
Question 2. C-DOT is the research institution of which department?
(a) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
(b) Department of Defence Research
(c) Department of Space
(d) Department of Science and Technology
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Department of Telecommunications. C-DOT is the premier R&D institution of the Department of Telecommunications.
Question 3. Which of these is among the focus areas of the new CoE?
(a) 5G Advanced/6G and quantum communication
(b) Satellite launch systems
(c) Bio-pharmaceutical research
(d) Submarine cable manufacturing
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a). The centre will work on 5G Advanced/6G, ultra-massive MIMO, ISAC, AI-native networks, quantum/post-quantum communication, and cyber security.
October 2026
Shram Samvad: Labour Codes Programme in Lucknow
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the Shram Samvad campaign:
Statement 1: It is a 90-day dialogue campaign.
Statement 2: District-level dialogues are being held in 316 districts under it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2. The 24 October release states both; the campaign began on 28 September.
Question 2. Which of the following labour codes is of the year 2019?
(a) Industrial Relations Code
(b) Code on Social Security
(c) Code on Wages
(d) Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Code on Wages. The event release gives the Code on Wages as 2019 and the other three as 2020.
October 2026
Asian Para Games 2026: India's Best-Ever Performance with 114 Medals
Read the full article →October 2026
Lake Untersee: How a 2019 Glacial Flood Altered Water Levels and Carbon Cycling
Read the full article →October 2026
ISRO's NVS-03 Launch Successful: Satellite Placed in Designated Orbit; NavIC's Satellite Shortage and the Importance of the Indigenous Clock
Read the full article →October 2026
Firing at a Church in Jordan's Karak: 9 Killed at a Funeral Gathering, Three Days of National Mourning
Read the full article →October 2026
Cyclone Arnab: Landfall Complete, Storm Weakens Over Land
Read the full article →October 2026
RBI's New Data Centre and Cyber Security Training Institute: Strengthening Digital Financial Infrastructure
Read the full article →October 2026
Second National Urban Conclave 2026: The Reform Agenda for Urban Governance, Planning and Financing
Read the full article →October 2026
RBI's New Foreign-Exchange Reporting: EDF on Service Exports, the Individual Exemption and the Implementation Gap
Read the full article →October 2026
Ladakh Governance Draft: Elected Body, Real Powers and Constitutional Safeguards
Read the full article →October 2026
The Maharashtra-FSSAI Dispute: National Standards, State Enforcement and Regulatory Federalism
Read the full article →October 2026
Walkie-Talkie Advertisements: The Difference Between Regulatory Permission and Informing the Consumer
Read the full article →October 2026
Bonin Islands Earthquake: The Geography of a 492-Kilometre-Deep Focus
Read the full article →October 2026
Filin Cruise Missile: What Did the Ukrainian Intelligence Disclosure Say?
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. Based on HUR's published details, which statement about Filin is correct?
(a) It is a ballistic missile launched only from the sea
(b) It has been described as a ground-launched cruise missile and its stated flight range is 600-1,200 kilometres
(c) The capability of each of its units has undergone independent international testing
(d) The identification of foreign components by itself proves direct supply by the companies concerned
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) HUR's portal records a ground-based launch and a range of 600-1,200 kilometres. This is a source-based claim. No conclusion of independent performance testing or direct supply follows from it.
October 2026
SAMHiTA: Digital Conservation of Sri Lanka's Manuscripts
Read the full article →October 2026
India's Defence Exports and Europe: The Difference Between the Total Figure and a Regional Ranking
Read the full article →October 2026
Nepal's Bhote Koshi Disaster: FRLD Provisionally Sets Aside USD 21.6 Million
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Question 1. Consider the following about FRLD's decision of 22 October 2026 regarding Nepal:
Statement 1: The Board provisionally set aside USD 21.6 million.
Statement 2: Nepal got a pilot path allowing it to make a request outside the normal application window under BIM.
Statement 3: This decision confirms that the entire amount has been disbursed to Nepal.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. The amount has been set aside provisionally and a special application path has been given. The release does not confirm actual disbursement, so the third statement is wrong.
October 2026
Snow Leopard: First National Assessment Estimates 718, with 477 in Ladakh
Read the full article →October 2026
Indigenous AIP System: Second Testing Stage for the Submarine Energy Module
Read the full article →October 2026
"Srirangam Temple: Architecture, Township and Land Protection"
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. With reference to the Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is located on the Srirangam island between the Kaveri and the Kollidam.
Statement 2: Its temple-town has seven prakaras and 21 gopurams.
Statement 3: Being on UNESCO's Tentative List is equal to final selection for the World Heritage List.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. The first two statements are correct. The Tentative List is the stage of potential nomination, not final World Heritage selection.
October 2026
Locus Coeruleus: Distribution of Learning Signals in the Brain
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the locus coeruleus:
- It is located in the pons part of the brainstem.
- Its neurons release noradrenaline.
- The new study on rats found the connections and activity of all its cells to be uniform.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. The first two statements are correct. The third is wrong, because the study found differences in connection regions, gene expression and activity with location.
October 2026
"Perchlorate's Effect on Bio-Bricks of Mars-Like Soil"
Read the full article →October 2026
Hungry Worms Near Food: The Link Between a Gene, Neural Signals and Collective Behaviour
Read the full article →October 2026
Perovskite Solar Cell: A New Strategy to Improve Polarisation and Crystal Growth Together
Read the full article →October 2026
Magnetic Field and Magnesium Isotope Effects on Tubulin Assembly
Read the full article →October 2026
QuPePFold: Quantum and Classical Computing Together to Find the Shapes of Small Peptides
Read the full article →October 2026
The Role of Cellular Housekeeping in Growing New Roots from a Leaf: A Study of Plethora and Autophagy
Read the full article →October 2026
Bismuth Oxyselenide for Flexible Electronics: Large Nanosheets Grown at Atmospheric Pressure
Read the full article →October 2026
Change Within from External Stiffness: A New Golgi Signalling Pathway in Breast Cancer Cells
Read the full article →October 2026
Light Absorption in Ultra-Thin Layers: The Physics Beyond the Beer-Lambert Estimate
Read the full article →October 2026
Controlling Elasticity in a Porous Crystal: A New Strategy for Magnetic Switching
Read the full article →October 2026
A Magnetic State That Changes with Light and Heat: Research on a Two-Dimensional Molecular Lattice
Read the full article →October 2026
Which Path Will Ions Cross Easily? Transfer Learning in the Search for Battery Materials
Read the full article →October 2026
Catalysts from Red Mud: Turning Industrial Waste and Nitrate into Useful Resources
Read the full article →October 2026
Disorder Can Serve Energy Too: Vibrations and Electrons in Porphyrin Nanotubes
Read the full article →October 2026
Tunable Oxide Films on Silicon: A New Study of Changing Electrical Properties
Read the full article →October 2026
Reading the Cellular Environment with Fluorescent Molecular Rotors
Read the full article →October 2026
Obstruction in DNA Copying: A Study of Protein Cooperation That Resolves R-Loops
Read the full article →October 2026
Why One Radius Is Not Enough in a Hydrogen Bond: A New Explanation from Electron Density
Read the full article →October 2026
Bio-Based Materials That Strengthen Sand: A Study of Terrazyme and Xanthan Gum
Read the full article →October 2026
Spindle Building with Blue Light: The LISA Platform for Understanding Cell Division
Read the full article →October 2026
Five-Nanobody Experimental Antivenom: Protection from Cobra Venom in Mice
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A Quantum Sensor on the Move: Nanodiamonds Meet Magnetic Microbots
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An Oxide That Changes Its Magnetic State with Current: Prospects for Cold Electronic Circuits
Read the full article →October 2026
Choosing a Droplet's Direction with a Laser: The Significance of the First Plasma Spark
Read the full article →October 2026
The Polymer Is Not Just a Base: Research on Temperature-Triggered Afterglow
Read the full article →October 2026
Turbulence-like Motion Without Flock Alignment: The Dense Algal Suspension Experiment
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Quantum Light in Silicon Nitride: the Possible Role of an Atomic Defect
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Electrochemical Synthesis of Three-Dimensional Building Blocks for Drug Discovery
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Large Film of a Two-Dimensional Magnetic Material: IISc's Vapour Deposition Method
Read the full article →October 2026
The Molecular Mimicry of Viral RNA: How EMCV Reaches the Ribosome
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Light Aluminium Alloy: A Nanolayer That Combines Strength and Ductility
Read the full article →October 2026
ChemXDyn: A Framework to Identify Real Chemical Change from the Motion of Molecules
Read the full article →October 2026
Reproductive Strategy of Invasive Plants: The Ability to Settle a New Area Alone
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Research that Changes the Path of Lithium Filaments in Solid-State Batteries
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Cold Pain After Chemotherapy: The Role of a Brain Circuit in Mice
Read the full article →October 2026
AdaptiveSplat: A Method to Build Three-Dimensional Scenes with Fewer Gaussian Units
Read the full article →October 2026
How Does a Scale Insect Pass Its Symbiotic Bacterium to the Next Generation?
Read the full article →October 2026
Protein Signals of Drought, Salinity and Alkalinity Tolerance in Lentil
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Towards Separating Uranium From Seawater: The Structure of a Membrane
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Using a Genetic Algorithm in the Design of Quantum Circuits
Read the full article →October 2026
Battery-Free E-Pill: The Distance Between Small Sensors and Real-World Use
Read the full article →October 2026
A New Chemical Method to Target the Bacterial Cell Wall
Read the full article →October 2026
Deep-Pose-Tracker: Measuring Behaviour from a Worm's Movement
Read the full article →October 2026
The Hollow-Fibre Membranes of Carbon Separation
Read the full article →October 2026
RSV Immunity in Older People with Comorbidities
Read the full article →October 2026
Light-Sensitive Micro-Supercapacitor: The Effect of Hydrogen Treatment
Read the full article →October 2026
Wollastonite-Fly Ash Bricks: Strength and Temperature-Based Monitoring
Read the full article →October 2026
Rocks of the Bagh Group: A New Study of Alteration by Hot Fluids
Read the full article →October 2026
Seafloor Ferromanganese Nodules: The Relationship Between Size and Metal Grade
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Gene Control in Skin and Oral Cancer
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The Age of Groundwater and the Carbon of Soil
Read the full article →October 2026
Superconducting Metamaterials Without Cutting the Film
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Lithium from Seawater: BARC's Low-Solvent Method
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The Predator-Prey Model: The Role of Available Habitat
Read the full article →October 2026
Riparian Health: Lessons from the Moyar-Bhavani Study
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The Sodium-Sulfur Battery: A Five-Metal Oxide Layer
Read the full article →October 2026
Shram Samvad: Programme on Labour Codes in Lucknow
Read the full article →October 2026
Farmer ID: The Milestone of 11 Crore Digital Identities
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Coordination in Rail Security: From RailMadad to Community Policing
Read the full article →October 2026
The Announced Programme of 25 October: Varanasi and Bhubaneswar
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Germany Talks: Trade, Investment and Industrial Research
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Rail Security: GRP Chiefs' Conference and RailMadad
Read the full article →October 2026
Retention Forestry: A Framework for Saving the Forest's Biological Legacy
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Fatty Liver Detection: An Indian Study of Plasma Lipid Signatures
Read the full article →October 2026
Dryland Farmers: A National Measure of Adaptive Capacity Linked to Safety Nets
Read the full article →October 2026
"Legislative Council: A Chamber of Review with Limited Powers"
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Question 1. With reference to the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A resolution of the Legislative Assembly with the prescribed special majority is necessary.
Statement 2: As soon as the Assembly's resolution is passed, the Council is automatically created or abolished.
Statement 3: A law of Parliament under Article 169 is not deemed to be a constitutional amendment within the meaning of Article 368.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (b) Only 1 and 3
The Assembly's resolution is a necessary step in the process. Parliament may then make a law. The resolution does not by itself create or abolish a Council. Article 169(3) does not deem such a law of Parliament to be a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
Question 2. With reference to the powers of a Legislative Council, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A Money Bill can first be introduced in the Legislative Council.
Statement 2: The Council's recommendations on a Money Bill are not binding on the Legislative Assembly.
Statement 3: The Legislative Council is not dissolved and has a system of gradual retirement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (b) Only 2 and 3
Article 198 does not allow a Money Bill to be introduced in the Council. The Council can give recommendations within 14 days, which the Assembly may accept or reject. Article 172(2) provides for the Council's permanence and gradual retirement.
October 2026
PLFS Revamp (January 2027): Bringing Gig Workers and Unpaid Work into Statistics
Read the full article →October 2026
India-China Border: The Patrolling-Pattern Dispute and the Twin Challenge of Border Management
Read the full article →October 2026
Beyond the Chandrasekhar Limit: Simulation Evidence from Magnetic White Dwarfs
Read the full article →October 2026
A New Electric Ray of the Arabian Sea: the Discovery of Tetronarce ramanamurthyi
Read the full article →October 2026
Adamantane-Bearing Metal Complexes: IIT Kanpur's New Initiative in Cancer-Drug Chemistry
Read the full article →October 2026
Squeezed Light and Graphene: Reading Quantum Fluctuations Through Forbidden Harmonics
Read the full article →October 2026
The Lost Rivers of the Himalaya Back on the Map: Claim of a Reconstruction of the Sutlej-Ghaggar-Saraswati-Drishadvati Basin
Read the full article →October 2026
Why Less Lightning in the Monsoon's Torrential Rain? The Hand of the Monsoon Trough and the Radar's Subtle Signal
Read the full article →October 2026
An Alternative to the Fuel Cell's Expensive Membrane: An Order-of-Magnitude Leap in Proton Conductivity from an Acid-Doped Nickel MOF
Read the full article →October 2026
Mapping the White Rust Arsenal: 214 New Effectors Found in the Deadly Mustard Pathogen
Read the full article →October 2026
2.8 Trillion Tokens: What the Largest Open AI Data Repository for Indian Languages Changes
Read the full article →October 2026
Four Weeks Shorter: What the RESOLVE Hepatitis C Trial Could Change
Read the full article →October 2026
The Real Cost of the Hula Party: Why the Elephant-Chasing Strategy Is Itself Becoming a Crisis
Read the full article →October 2026
One Solid, Two Fuels: IISER's Crystal That Releases Hydrogen and Methane on Mild Heating
Read the full article →October 2026
The Fuel Ledger of Galaxies: uGMRT HI Stacking
Read the full article →October 2026
A Look Inside with Cosmic Rays: A New Generation of Portable Muon Detectors
Read the full article →October 2026
The Hidden Chemical Map of Making Fuel from CO2: IISc's Discovery of 9,389 Reactions
Read the full article →October 2026
A 'Locked' Himalayan Fault Beneath Uttarakhand: New Study, Old Danger
Read the full article →October 2026
One Drop of Blood, Screening for Two Diseases: IIT Bombay's Low-Cost Method
Read the full article →October 2026
Three New Species of Centipedes: Hidden Predators from the Forests of the Western Ghats Enter Science's Register
Read the full article →October 2026
A Maternal Story of Konkani Origin: Women Too Were Part of Ancient Migrations - CCMB Study
Read the full article →October 2026
A Molecule That Spins with Electric Current (IIT Madras, Nature)
Read the full article →October 2026
Bacteria-Eating Viruses: Phage Therapy Success Against a Drug-Resistant Infection in Guntur
Read the full article →October 2026
Detecting Cancer from a Drop of Blood? ICMR-Supported Research Begins in Visakhapatnam
Read the full article →October 2026
Opposite Forest-Fire Trends in India's Eastern and Western Ghats
Read the full article →October 2026
The Cell's Own 'Alarm Switch': DZIP3, the Protein That Recognises Viruses and Wakes Up Immunity
Read the full article →October 2026
Pyrite Oxidation in the Upper Indus Basin: Net CO2 Release Detected from Isotope Evidence
Read the full article →October 2026
Climate Zones Themselves Have Shifted: IMD's 70-Year Data Shows a Drier, Hotter North India and a Wetter Peninsula
Read the full article →October 2026
A Device with a Brain-Like Eye: IIT Guwahati-Kharagpur's Light-Sensitive Artificial Synapse
Read the full article →October 2026
The Unseen World of Viruses in the Bay of Bengal's Depths: CUSAT-NIO's First 'Virome' Survey
Read the full article →October 2026
Chandrayaan-3 APXS Study: Composition of Shiv Shakti Site Closest to Lunar Meteorite ALHA 81005
Read the full article →October 2026
Parkinson Disease: New Variants in an Indian Whole-genome Study
Read the full article →October 2026
Clean Cooking Energy: The Challenge from Connection to Sustained Use
Read the full article →October 2026
A Map of Venom: The Genetic Story of the Indian Spectacled Cobra and the Sri Lankan Divide
Read the full article →October 2026
Mahseer Conservation: Intentions Are Good, but Where Are Rights and Coordination?
Read the full article →October 2026
Pichhore Orbicular Granite: A 2.56-Billion-Year-Old Rock Record
Read the full article →October 2026
Five New Allographa Species in the Western Ghats: Lichens and Forest Identity
Read the full article →October 2026
The Return of Mangrove Forests: Global Signals from Satellites and Their Limits
Read the full article →October 2026
NABARD's GI Support: From Registration to Benefits for Rural Producers
Read the full article →October 2026
Surha Tal: Wetland Management Lessons from India's 100th Ramsar Site
Read the full article →October 2026
Ocean Census: The Gap Between Discovering Marine Life and Scientifically Identifying It
Read the full article →October 2026
Friendly Fungi in Paddy Roots: Mycorrhiza and the Promise of Sustainable Farming
Read the full article →October 2026
Sacred Groves and Giant Trees: From Seed Dispersal to Forest Regeneration
Read the full article →October 2026
Borjuli Wild Rice: Genetic Diversity and Why Local Conservation Matters
Read the full article →October 2026
Bio-Bitumen: Road Binder from Sugarcane Molasses and a Separate Technical Route from Stubble
Read the full article →October 2026
Biochar: Soil Improvement and Carbon Removal from Biomass Residues
Read the full article →October 2026
Gene-Edited Pig Kidney: The Possibility and Limits of Xenotransplantation
Read the full article →October 2026
Placenta-on-Chip: A Laboratory Model of Maternal-Fetal Exchange
Read the full article →October 2026
"DNA Metabarcoding: Conservation Insights from the Dhole's Diet"
Read the full article →October 2026
Quantum Battery: Fast Charging, Energy Storage and the Difference of Useful Work
Read the full article →October 2026
Electrocaloric Cooling: What the May 2026 Nature Study Shows and What It Does Not
Read the full article →October 2026
Optical Atomic Clocks: More Precise Time and Preparations for a New Definition of the Second
Read the full article →October 2026
Neuromorphic Computing: Brain-inspired Chips and Memristors
Read the full article →October 2026
Time Crystal: Order Repeating in Time and the Possibility of Quantum Measurement
Read the full article →October 2026
Hantavirus: The Route of Infection and a Correct Understanding of Risk
Read the full article →October 2026
Digital Inheritance: Account Access, Succession and Privacy Are Separate Questions
Read the full article →October 2026
Gene Drive: The Possibility of Disease Control and the Responsibility of Biosafety
Read the full article →October 2026
Marine Cloud Brightening and El Nino: Questions Raised by a Model Study
Read the full article →October 2026
Identifying AI Content: The Difference Between Watermarking and Digital Provenance
Read the full article →October 2026
Gastrodiplomacy: From Taste to Dialogue and the Local Economy
Read the full article →October 2026
Ramses and Asteroid Defence
Read the full article →October 2026
Gonorrhoea and the Challenge of Drug Resistance
Read the full article →October 2026
Glyphosate and the Debate on Safe Agriculture
Read the full article →October 2026
Ceratocaudia antiqua: A Small Sauropod from the Sands of Kachchh and the Idea of Its Horn-like Tail
Read the full article →October 2026
Actinarctus odissi: New Marine Tardigrade Found off the Odisha Coast
Read the full article →October 2026
Why Do Resistance Genes Rise in Rivers in the Monsoon? Lessons from a Dehradun Study
Read the full article →October 2026
Brachybacterium netajii: Bioremediation Lessons from a Pollution-Tolerant Bacterium
Read the full article →October 2026
Cyananthus hookeri: The Correct Meaning of an Indian Record Found After 158 Years
Read the full article →October 2026
Caridina sharmai: Why the Identification of a New Freshwater Shrimp in the Gomti Matters
Read the full article →October 2026
Pygoluciola mawsynram: A New Identity for Meghalaya's Firefly
Read the full article →October 2026
Microplastics from Legacy Waste Dumps: Why Monitoring Must Accompany Cleanup
Read the full article →October 2026
Studying Cyclone Ockhi: How Do Cloud- and Rain-Affected Satellite Data Help Forecasting?
Read the full article →October 2026
Dendrites in Solid-State Batteries: Why the Boundaries of Small Crystals Matter
Read the full article →October 2026
"Monitoring Coastal Defence Structures: Lessons from a Mobile GIS Study in Kerala"
Read the full article →October 2026
Leptopoma subbaraoi: How Was the New Land Snail of Great Nicobar Identified?
Read the full article →October 2026
Spilomena malabarica: Kerala's New Wasp and the Scientific Caution of Taxonomy
Read the full article →October 2026
Ten New Parasitoid Wasp Species of the Genus Duta: Morphology, DNA and the Limits of Biological Control
Read the full article →October 2026
Two New Micro-Snails from Meghalaya: Georissa meghalayaensis and Acmella bensoni
Read the full article →October 2026
Cambaltica patra in Kutch Amber: An Ancient Leaf Beetle and Synchrotron Technology
Read the full article →October 2026
Recyclable PDK Plastic: New Research on Making Raw Material from Microorganisms
Read the full article →October 2026
A High-Entropy Sodium-Ion Cathode: Research, Capacity and Limits
Read the full article →October 2026
Volcanoes and the Link with Long Cooling — Key Facts
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. Consider the following statements about volcanoes and climate:
- Sulphate aerosols formed in the stratosphere can cool by scattering part of the sunlight.
- The climate effect of every large eruption is fixed solely by the quantity of material ejected.
- Feedbacks from the ocean and sea ice can change the duration of the initial effect.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Sulphur, altitude, latitude and background conditions also matter.
October 2026
Silicosis and Workers' Rights - Key Facts
Read the full article →October 2026
Wolbachia for Dengue Control: Key Facts
Read the full article →October 2026
Political Neutrality in Football - Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about political neutrality in football:
- FIFA's May 2024 Statutes mention both respect for human rights and political neutrality.
- The combined fine announced on the Argentine football association in August 2026 was only for the banner display.
- The filing of a complaint against an office-holder is equivalent to a violation being proved.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See the answer and reasoning
Answer: (a). Only statement 1 is correct. The combined penalty covered several kinds of violation. A complaint and a proved finding are different things.
October 2026
Ecocide and Environmental Accountability - Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements in relation to ecocide and international law:
- The ICC prosecutor's policy can by itself add a new crime to the Rome Statute.
- Environmental damage can be relevant in the context of existing Rome Statute crimes.
- The Council of Europe's environment convention and the Rome Statute are separate arrangements.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The prosecutor's policy does not add a crime to the parent Statute. Environmental damage can connect to existing crimes, while the European convention is a separate treaty.
October 2026
Keyword Advertising and Trademark — Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about keyword advertising and the platform's responsibility:
- The keyword that triggers an advertisement and the ad text visible to the consumer can be different.
- A platform's advertising policy stands above a court's applicable order.
- Refusal of an interim stay and the final disposal of an appeal are different procedural positions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). A keyword can be an internal signal. A company policy is no substitute for law or an order. Not getting interim relief in an appeal is not the same as its final decision.
October 2026
Global Capability Centres — Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to Global Capability Centres:
- They can contribute to global functions as a multinational company group's own units.
- Their work is necessarily limited to call centres only.
- It is possible for a company to use both its own capability centre and an external service provider.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). GCCs can do diverse work such as technology, finance, engineering and research. A company can make mixed use of its own unit and external services.
October 2026
Darknet, Anonymity and Privacy - Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
- Private online banking data not indexed by ordinary search engines can be an example of the deep web.
- Every use of the darknet by itself proves criminal activity.
- Both digital payment and physical delivery can play a role in the supply of illegal goods ordered online.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). The deep web has many legitimate uses. The use of anonymity technology is not in itself proof of crime. After an online deal for an illegal good, physical supply may also be needed.
October 2026
Birsa Munda and the Ulgulan: Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Birsa Munda's movement was linked to land rights and opposition to colonial rule in the Chotanagpur region.
Statement 2: There was no place for social reform in Birsa's message.
Statement 3: Under Article 342, Parliament can make a law to include a tribe in, or exclude it from, the notified list.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The movement was related to land and political rights, and social reform was also part of it. Article 342(2) gives Parliament the power to make a law to include a tribe in the list or exclude it.
October 2026
Farmer Producer Organisations and Climate-Resilient Farming: Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements regarding farmer producer organisations:
Statement 1: They can collect farmers' produce and buy agricultural inputs collectively.
Statement 2: Every form of an FPO is necessarily a producer company.
Statement 3: The registration of an organisation is sufficient proof of an increase in the benefit of all its members.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) Only one. The first statement is correct. FPO is a broad category, which can include cooperative forms as well. Registration does not by itself prove the result in activity, income and benefit.
October 2026
Mohenjodaro's 'Dancing Girl' — Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about Mohenjodaro's 'Dancing Girl':
- It is a bronze statue of the Harappan Civilisation.
- In lost-wax casting, the shape made of wax comes out on heating and metal is poured into the mould thus formed.
- Its popular name is decisive written evidence of the person's actual occupation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2. The statue's popular name is part of its interpretation, not a written record of the actual occupation.
October 2026
Ultrasound and PCPNDT - Key Facts
Read the full article →October 2026
LNG Storage and Energy Security - Key Facts
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to LNG infrastructure:
Statement 1: A regasification terminal's annual capacity is equal to the stock present in its tanks at a given moment.
Statement 2: The stock kept for regular operations and the separate strategic reserve for a crisis are different concepts.
Statement 3: Along with raising storage, the capacity of the pipelines that carry the gas onwards is also important.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3. Annual processing capacity, physical storage and actual stock are different measures. The capacity of the whole supply chain matters.
October 2026
Neutral Merchant Ships in War: Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to maritime conflict:
- The San Remo Manual is in itself a binding international treaty.
- The legal conditions for capturing a commercial vessel and for attacking it are not the same.
- A vessel's flag state and the nationality of the sailors working on it can be different.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3. The Manual is an important non-binding reference, not a treaty in itself. Capture and attack demand separate legal tests. The flag state and the sailors' nationality can be different.
October 2026
5G Network Slicing and Net Neutrality — Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to 5G network slicing:
- Virtual parts can be created on one physical network according to different needs.
- The use of slicing in a service is in itself conclusive proof of its compliance with net neutrality rules.
- Because of specialised services, the availability and overall quality of the general internet service should not suffer.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only. Technical capability and regulatory compliance are separate questions. The actual operation of the service and the applicable conditions must be examined.
October 2026
Cheque Bounce and the Insolvency Process: Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about cheque dishonour and the insolvency process:
- Moratorium means automatic waiver of every related debt.
- In a Section 138 proceeding, a question can arise about the criminal and compensation aspects.
- Referring a question to a larger Bench is not the same as finally overturning an earlier larger-Bench decision.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. The second and third statements are correct. A moratorium is a temporary procedural stay, not an automatic discharge from debt.
October 2026
BCCI and the Right to Information - Key Facts
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Question 1. With reference to the concept of a public authority under the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Non-government organisations substantially financed by government funds can also fall within its ambit.
Statement 2: Every private institution registered under a law automatically becomes a public authority established by that law.
Statement 3: Government ownership, control or substantial financing are the relevant tests under the law.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. The first and third statements are consistent with Section 2(h). Registration alone does not automatically make every private institution a public authority.
October 2026
DNA Testing in Paternity Disputes: Key Facts
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Question 1. With reference to a DNA test ordered by a court in a paternity dispute, consider the following statements:
- The test becomes automatically mandatory the moment a paternity dispute arises.
- Other available evidence and the actual need for the test are relevant.
- A balance of the privacy, dignity and identity interests of the parties concerned is essential.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. The second and third statements are correct. A test is not ordered as a matter of routine; it is directed after examining the relevant circumstances and the need.
October 2026
Hyderabad's Char Kaman: Key Facts
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Question 1. With reference to Hyderabad's Char Kaman, consider the following statements:
- They are associated with the urban planning of the Qutb Shahi period.
- They are another name for the four minarets of Charminar.
- They were linked to the entrance of royal palace and office complexes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. The first and third statements are correct. The Char Kaman are separate arched gateways, not the minarets of Charminar.
October 2026
Warm Nights and the Risk to Health - Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the India Meteorological Department's 'warm night' criteria:
- For it to be described, the day's maximum temperature must be at least 40 degrees Celsius.
- In a warm night, the minimum temperature is 4.5 to 6.4 degrees Celsius above normal.
- Outside these criteria there is no health risk from heat inside a home.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See the answer and reasoning
Answer: (b) only two. The first two statements match the Department's criteria. The third is wrong. Even without a formal warning, there can be a health risk in poorly ventilated or crowded hot places.
October 2026
Maulana Barkatullah Bhopali - Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements in relation to Maulana Barkatullah Bhopali:
- He was associated with the Ghadar movement.
- He was the Prime Minister of the provisional government-in-exile at Kabul in 1915.
- He became the constitutional Prime Minister of India after 1947.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. The first two statements are correct. Barkatullah's role was connected with the government-in-exile at Kabul. He died in 1927; he was not the constitutional Prime Minister after 1947.
October 2026
Hainan Free Trade Port - Key Facts
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Question 1. Consider the following statements in relation to the Hainan Free Trade Port:
- It is an island province of China where a special customs arrangement has been applied across the whole island.
- Its second line mainly relates to goods entering the Chinese mainland from Hainan.
- The special arrangement means that every kind of tax on every good has ended.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. The first two statements are correct. The zero-duty arrangement has eligibility conditions and exceptions. Exemption from import duty does not lead to the conclusion that every tax has ended.
October 2026
Silicosis and Workers' Rights: The Question of Access to Welfare Benefits
Read the full article →October 2026
Dengue Control with Wolbachia
Read the full article →October 2026
Political Neutrality in Football: Expression and Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Ecocide and Environmental Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Keyword Advertising and the Limits of a Trademark
Read the full article →October 2026
Global Capability Centres: A Strategy of Capability Beyond Numbers
Read the full article →October 2026
Darknet: Anonymity, Crime and the Balance of Privacy
Read the full article →October 2026
Birsa Munda: Ulgulan, Land and the History of Self-Governance
Read the full article →October 2026
Farmer Producer Organisations and Climate-Resilient Farming: The Role of Organisation and Its Limits
Read the full article →October 2026
Mohenjodaro's 'Dancing Girl': Bronze Art and the Limits of Historical Evidence
Read the full article →October 2026
Access to Ultrasound and Prevention of Sex Selection: Technology, Law and Balance
Read the full article →October 2026
Delhi Gymkhana Dispute: Lease Termination and the Legal Process of Eviction
Read the full article →October 2026
LNG Storage and Energy Security: The Difference Between Storage, Regasification and Supply
Read the full article →October 2026
Protection of Neutral Merchant Ships in War: Why Legal Distinctions Matter
Read the full article →October 2026
5G Network Slicing and Net Neutrality: The Priority-Service Debate
Read the full article →October 2026
Cheque Bounce and Insolvency: Scope of the Moratorium
Read the full article →October 2026
BCCI and the Right to Information: Limits of the Commission's May 2026 Decision
Read the full article →October 2026
Bitchat and Offline Messaging: Technology, Limits and Regulation
Read the full article →October 2026
DNA Testing in Paternity Disputes: The Judicial Balance of Privacy and Identity
Read the full article →October 2026
Hyderabad's 'Char Kaman'
Read the full article →October 2026
Maulana Barkatullah Bhopali
Read the full article →October 2026
Hainan Free Trade Port
Read the full article →October 2026
The Carbon-Free Analog of Ferrocene
Read the full article →October 2026
BB-PPDR National Emergency Communication Network: Public Consultation on Network Architecture, Suggestions by 5 November
Read the full article →October 2026
"Engineering Exports: Over US$70 Billion in April-September; Deliberation on US$250 Billion Strategy for 2030"
Read the full article →October 2026
Fisheries Sector: 30 Million Tonne Production Target in 5 Years; National Action Plan for Inland Small-Scale Fisheries
Read the full article →October 2026
Steel Sector H1 FY2026-27: Finished Steel Consumption Up 7.6% on Domestic Demand; Draft Policy 'Vision 2047' Ready
Read the full article →October 2026
Bastar Dussehra: The President's Jagdalpur Visit and the Maa Danteshwari Tradition
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Question 1. Bastar Dussehra is mainly associated with which deity?
(a) Maa Danteshwari
(b) Maa Bamleshwari
(c) Maa Bankanti
(d) Maa Sharda
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Maa Danteshwari. Bastar Dussehra is a tribal festival celebrated with the local deity Maa Danteshwari at its centre.
Question 2. Where did the President interact with tribal representatives in Jagdalpur?
(a) Raj Bhavan
(b) Muria Darbar
(c) District Panchayat
(d) Kanker Palace
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Muria Darbar. The President interacted with local Manjhi and Chalki (traditional tribal representatives) at the Muria Darbar.
Question 3. Bastar Dussehra is a festival of which state?
(a) Odisha
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh. Bastar Dussehra is a well-known tribal festival celebrated at Jagdalpur in Chhattisgarh.
October 2026
NHAI: New Toilet and Parking Guidelines at Toll Plazas; Complete Ban on Human Entry into Septic Tanks
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Question 1. What is compulsory for cleaning septic tanks under the new guidelines?
(a) Contract workers
(b) Fully mechanical desludging; human entry prohibited
(c) Manual cleaning with a permit
(d) No provision
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Fully mechanical desludging; human entry prohibited. Cleaning of septic tanks, manholes and sewer lines will be done only by a fully mechanical method; human entry is completely prohibited.
Question 2. With which app is citizen feedback linked?
(a) FASTag
(b) Rajmargyatra
(c) Sugam
(d) National Highway Alert
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Rajmargyatra. By scanning a QR code, a complaint can be registered on the Rajmargyatra app.
Question 3. Who issued these guidelines?
(a) MoRTH
(b) NHAI
(c) NHIDCL
(d) IRC
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) NHAI. These guidelines for toll plaza toilets and parking have been issued by NHAI.
October 2026
Committee to Review Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices under UCPMP
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Question 1. Who chairs the new review committee?
(a) Preeti Sudan
(b) Dr M. Srinivas
(c) Dr Naresh Trehan
(d) Secretary, Department of Pharmaceuticals
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Dr M. Srinivas. Dr M. Srinivas, Member, NITI Aayog, chairs it. Preeti Sudan and Dr Naresh Trehan are members.
Question 2. When and in what form did UCPMP begin?
(a) 2024, statutory code
(b) 2015, voluntary self-regulation
(c) 2010, legislation
(d) 2020, judicial order
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2015, voluntary self-regulation. It began as voluntary industry self-regulation in 2015; UCPMP 2024 has replaced it and is in force.
Question 3. What is the committee's deadline for recommendations?
(a) One month
(b) Three months
(c) Two months from the first meeting
(d) Six months
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Two months from the first meeting. The deadline runs from the committee's first meeting.
October 2026
First Numerical Explanation of Black Hole Flicker (QPO): ARIES Nainital Study
Read the full article →October 2026
Asian Para Games 2026 (Aichi-Nagoya): India's Campaign with 5 Golds on 23 October - Sandeep Kumar's Gold the 100th Medal
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Question 1. Where and when were the 5th Asian Para Games 2026 held?
(a) Tokyo, 6-13 October 2026
(b) Aichi-Nagoya, 18-24 October 2026
(c) Hangzhou, 22-28 October 2026
(d) Jakarta, 18-24 October 2026
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Aichi-Nagoya, 18-24 October 2026. The fifth edition ran in Aichi-Nagoya (Japan) from 18 to 24 October 2026; 45 countries/regions and 18 sports are included.
Question 2. Which player's gold did the PMO mark as India's 100th medal at these Games?
(a) Nitesh Kumar
(b) Naveen Sivakumar
(c) Sandeep Kumar
(d) Harvinder Singh
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) Sandeep Kumar. Sandeep Kumar won gold with a world record on debut in the men's 400 m T64; according to the PMO release this was India's 100th medal at these Games.
Question 3. In para badminton, what does the SH6 class denote?
(a) Upper-limb impairment
(b) Wheelchair players
(c) Players of short stature
(d) Visually impaired players
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) Players of short stature. SH6 is the class for players of short stature; Nithyashree Sumathi Sivan won silver in this class on 23 October 2026.
October 2026
The Maritime Sector's First Dedicated NBFC: SMFCL's Expansion; MDF's Rs 5,000 Crore First Close
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FSDC's 30th Meeting: Discussion on Financial Stability, Cyber Strategy and Tokenisation
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Sidhi District to Join Rail Network for the First Time Since Independence: Satna-Devendra Nagar and Rewa-Churhat Sections on 24 October
Read the full article →October 2026
Magnitude 7 Earthquake in Tibet's Nagqu: 16 Dead, the Plateau's Geology and Risk
Read the full article →October 2026
Alberta Referendum: 75.5% Choose to Remain in Canada (Partial Count)
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16 Indigenous Breeds Get National Recognition: Gazette Notification Issued
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Head of the Vishnu Idol at Khajuraho's Javari Temple Found, ASI to Reattach It
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Sakharov Prize 2026: The International Criminal Court and Its Officials
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Shamonda Virus: First Recorded Human Infection in France
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World Bank's First Digital Strategy: From Connectivity to 'Small AI'
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"NHAI's NCR Dust Control: 60 Sprinklers, 14 Anti-Smog Guns; Reuse of Landfill Inert Material"
Read the full article →October 2026
Joint Army-Civil Defence Initiative: 600 Master Trainers from 12 States/UTs to Be Trained
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Kittur Rani Chennamma: Birth Anniversary and 202nd Victory Commemoration at Parliament
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Department of Posts Record: Revenue Above ₹4,000 Crore in Two Consecutive Quarters, 24% Growth in the First Half
Read the full article →October 2026
12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum: 26-27 October 2026, in the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan
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Kashi Tamil Sangamam 5.0: 28 November to 12 December 2026, Registration Portal Launched
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Fossil Fuel on the Farm, Food Becoming Fuel: Indian Agriculture's Double Bind
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Forest Rights Act Land: From Pulses and Oilseeds to Livelihood Security
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Prasar Bharati: The Law's Promise and the Institutional Reality
Read the full article →November 2026
Delhi-NCR's Air Pollution: The Challenge Beyond GRAP
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Reliable monitoring and effective enforcement are more important than installing equipment in industrial pollution control. Discuss in the context of Delhi-NCR. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
- Introduction: Distinguish monitoring at an industrial source from the city’s ambient AQI.
- Body: Separate OCEMS installation, operational status, data transmission and actual compliance. Discuss calibration, independent verification, the complementary role of PTZ cameras, data quality, inspections and action on violations. Do not apply the 54% share to every industry.
- Conclusion: Recommend combining measurable compliance, transparent data and accountable enforcement.
October 2026
NAAS at the Borlaug Dialogue; Indian Student Wins Global Youth Institute Award
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Question 1. Where was the 2026 Norman E. Borlaug International Dialogue held?
(a) New Delhi, India
(b) Des Moines, Iowa, USA
(c) Rome, Italy
(d) Mexico City, Mexico
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Des Moines, Iowa. This annual World Food Prize Foundation programme was held in Des Moines on 20-22 October 2026 on the theme "Before Hunger Wins".
Question 2. What is the full form and position of NAAS?
(a) National Academy of Agricultural Sciences, New Delhi
(b) National Academy of Agriculture, Hyderabad
(c) Agricultural Research Board, New Delhi
(d) National Seeds Corporation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) National Academy of Agricultural Sciences (NAAS), New Delhi. NAAS is India's apex academy of agricultural sciences; it is linked to the ICAR-DARE framework.
Question 3. With which US institution did NAAS sign an MoU on this occasion?
(a) USDA
(b) Council for Agricultural Science and Technology (CAST)
(c) CGIAR
(d) FAO
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) CAST. The NAAS-CAST MoU was signed to strengthen international agricultural-science cooperation.
October 2026
Chinmaya Amrit Mahotsav Global Convention: PM's Address at Bharat Mandapam
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C-DOT's Sixth Centre of Excellence at IIT (BHU): Focus on 6G and Quantum Communication
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C-DAC and Bank of India Quantum MoU: Indigenous Quantum-Safe Technology for Banking
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Agrivoltaics: Crops and Solar Power from the Same Field; 7th World Conference in Delhi
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Kamala Hydel Project: 3,278-Hectare Forest Diversion Proposal Under FAC Review
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Question 1. On which river is the Kamala hydroelectric project proposed?
(a) Lohit
(b) The Kamala river, a tributary of the Subansiri
(c) Dibang
(d) Siang
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) the Kamala river. The Kamala river is a right-bank tributary of the Subansiri; this 1,720 megawatt project is one of the cascade projects of the Subansiri basin.
Question 2. According to the CCEA approval, what are the total cost and capacity of the Kamala project?
(a) Rs 24,000 crore; 1,720 megawatt
(b) Rs 26,069.50 crore; 1,720 megawatt
(c) Rs 26,069.50 crore; 2,000 megawatt
(d) Rs 28,000 crore; 1,720 megawatt
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Rs 26,069. 50 crore; 1,720 megawatt. According to PIB (8 April 2026), the CCEA approved the 1,720 megawatt (8x210 + 1x40 megawatt) project at a cost of Rs 26,069.50 crore; expected generation 6,870 million units.
Question 3. Where and over how much area is the proposed compensatory afforestation?
(a) 3,278 hectares in Arunachal Pradesh
(b) 5,440 hectares in Assam
(c) 7,018 hectares in Madhya Pradesh
(d) 2,960 hectares in Himachal Pradesh
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) 7,018 hectares in Madhya Pradesh. Because Arunachal has high forest cover, the Forest Conservation Act permits compensatory afforestation in states with low forest cover; if equivalent non-forest land is not available, double planting on degraded land is mandatory.
October 2026
"28th Charles Correa Gold Medal: Kochi Student's 'Energy Commons' Project Wins"
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Question 1. Who won the 28th Charles Correa Gold Medal (2026)?
(a) Manu Viswam E.
(b) Radhakrishnan M.S.
(c) Rahul Mehrotra
(d) Kaiwan Mehta
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Radhakrishnan M.S. Radhakrishnan M.S., a student of Kochi's SEED APJ Abdul School of Environmental Design, won the 28th Charles Correa Gold Medal for the project 'Energy Commons'; Manu Viswam E. received the Honourable Mention.
Question 2. In which year was the Charles Correa Gold Medal started?
(a) 1988
(b) 1998
(c) 2006
(d) 2015
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1998. Started in 1998, this award honours undergraduate architecture thesis projects that meaningfully engage with the challenges of the built environment.
Question 3. Which civilian honours were conferred on Charles Correa?
(a) Only Padma Shri
(b) Only Padma Bhushan
(c) Padma Shri and Padma Vibhushan
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Padma Shri and Padma Vibhushan. Charles Correa (1930-2015) received the Padma Shri in 1972 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2006; he was one of India's most celebrated modern architects.
October 2026
CREA's Analysis: Four Years of GRAP; No Consistent Improvement in Delhi's Winter Air
Read the full article →October 2026
Iodine: World Iodine Deficiency Day and India's NIDDCP Programme
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PM-DAKSH: 1.87 Lakh Trained, 96,162 Placed; Merger into PMKVY
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Question 1. From 2024-25, into which scheme was the PM-DAKSH scheme merged?
(a) Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
(c) National Urban Livelihoods Mission
(d) Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) PMKVY. PM-DAKSH's training job-roles were already included in PMKVY; to prevent duplication, the scheme was merged from 2024-25 into the Ministry of Skill Development's PMKVY.
Question 2. How many candidates in total were trained under PM-DAKSH between 2020-21 and 2023-24?
(a) 96,162
(b) 1,87,305
(c) 2,76,470
(d) 3,09,500
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) 1,87,305. According to the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment's statement of 22 October 2026, 1,87,305 candidates were trained and 96,162 of them received placements.
Question 3. Under PM-DAKSH's rules, what minimum percentage of trained candidates' employment/self-employment did training institutions have to ensure?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) 70%. On placement below 70%, there was a provision to forfeit the third instalment of 30% of the training cost.
October 2026
JWALA-MK1: Cost Asymmetry of Interception in the Drone Age and the Indigenous Answer
Read the full article →October 2026
PHP2Shell: Two Critical Vulnerabilities and the Internet's Invisible Foundation
Read the full article →October 2026
Colorado River Basin: A New Pattern of Groundwater Loss in the 2020-22 Drought
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Question 1. According to the recent study, during the 2020-22 drought, in which basin of the Colorado River was the groundwater loss greater?
(a) Lower Basin
(b) Upper Basin
(c) Equal in both
(d) Only the Green River basin
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Upper Basin. According to the Water Resources Research study (13 October 2026), the Upper Basin lost about 4.6 trillion gallons of groundwater - nearly twice the Lower Basin's estimated 2.5 trillion gallons - even though the Upper Basin has long been considered to have greater natural recharge.
Question 2. Which is the longest tributary of the Colorado River?
(a) Gila
(b) Gunnison
(c) Green River
(d) San Juan
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Green River. Among the Colorado's major tributaries - Green, Gunnison, San Juan, Dolores, Little Colorado, Gila and Virgin - the longest is the Green River.
October 2026
The Right to Protest: Article 19 and the Supreme Court's Approach from Himat Lal to Amit Sahni
Read the full article →October 2026
Bundibugyo Ebola: 8,728 Confirmed Cases in DRC as of 6 October (WHO); Imported Cases in Kenya and Nigeria
Read the full article →October 2026
PLFS June 2026 Bulletin: Unemployment Rate Steady at 5.5%, the Rural-Urban Picture
Read the full article →October 2026
ACC Battery PLI Scheme as of 21 July 2026: 40 GWh Awarded, 1 GWh Installed (March), No Incentive Claim Yet
Read the full article →October 2026
UDISE+ 2025-26: Dropout, Retention and Transition Rates in Schools
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US H-1B Changes: The Proposed $103,265 Fee, Wages and Weighted Selection
Read the full article →October 2026
"Operation Hard Ball": The American Campaign Against India-Based Gangs
Read the full article →October 2026
VAR and the 2026/27 Changes to Football's Laws: the "Mistaken Identity" Rule and the World Cup Controversy
Read the full article →October 2026
UN Commission of Inquiry Report on Children: Impact on Children in Gaza and the Occupied Palestinian Territory
Read the full article →October 2026
Temporary Block on Telegram: NEET Re-Exam, Section 69A and the Delhi High Court's Decision
Read the full article →October 2026
WhatsApp Usernames: Government Notice on the Feature to Hide Phone Numbers
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Vikram-1: India's First Private Orbital Rocket and "Mission Aagman"
Read the full article →October 2026
Tipeshwar Sanctuary: Alleged Resorts in the Eco-Sensitive Zone and the High Court's Notice
Read the full article →October 2026
The Plan of 3 June 1947: The Framework of Partition and Its Terms
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Landslide Early Warning Systems: Two Methods and Their Limitations
Read the full article →October 2026
The Gandhi-Tagore Dialogue: The Meaning of the Charkha Disagreement
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US-Saudi Arabia Nuclear Cooperation Agreement: The 123 Agreement, the Enrichment Question and the US Congress's Review
Read the full article →October 2026
Venezuela: The Estimate of the World's Largest Oil Reserves and the Country's Geography
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Question 1. Which country holds the world's largest estimated proved crude oil reserves (according to the Energy Institute)?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Iran
(c) Venezuela
(d) Canada
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Venezuela. According to Reuters, Energy Institute figures put Venezuela's reserves at about 303 billion barrels (about 17 per cent of the world's total), more than Saudi Arabia.
Question 2. Which of the following countries is not a neighbour of Venezuela?
(a) Guyana
(b) Brazil
(c) Colombia
(d) Peru
See answer and reason
Answer: (d) Peru. According to Britannica, Venezuela borders Guyana to the east, Brazil to the south, and Colombia to the south-west and west; not Peru.
Question 3. The foreign ministers of which two countries joined India's External Affairs Minister in the Mumbai talks of 20 October 2026?
(a) The US and the UAE
(b) The US and Saudi Arabia
(c) The UAE and Venezuela
(d) The US and Brazil
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) The US and the UAE. According to The Hindu, Jaishankar hosted US Secretary of State Marco Rubio and UAE Foreign Minister Abdullah bin Zayed.
October 2026
Iran's Claim of Attacks on Seven Tankers in Hormuz and the Yemen Front: West Asia Tension and India's Interests
Read the full article →October 2026
Mecca Joint Defence Agreement: Ratification Process in Turkiye's Parliament
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Question 1. When was the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement signed?
(a) 7 August 2026
(b) 20 October 2026
(c) 1 January 2026
(d) 15 July 2026
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) 7 August 2026. The agreement was signed on 7 August 2026; on 20 October it was sent to the parliamentary committee.
Question 2. Who are the three original parties to the Mecca agreement?
(a) Turkiye, Iran and Saudi Arabia
(b) Turkiye, Pakistan and Saudi Arabia
(c) Pakistan, Egypt and Qatar
(d) Turkiye, Qatar and the UAE
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Turkiye, Pakistan and Saudi Arabia. The parties are Turkiye, Pakistan and Saudi Arabia.
Question 3. According to the draft seen by Reuters, who decides the scope of help in Article 2?
(a) The United Nations
(b) NATO
(c) Each signatory party itself
(d) The International Court of Justice
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Each signatory party itself. Each party will decide the scope and nature of help after an objective assessment of the need.
October 2026
VB-G RAM G: Work Restrictions Lifted in All 38 Districts of Bihar
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Question 1. The VB-G RAM G Act is of which year?
(a) 2005
(b) 2020
(c) 2025
(d) 2026
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2025. According to PIB, this is the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, which is in force from 1 July 2026.
Question 2. How many days is the statutory employment guarantee per household under the Act?
(a) 100
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 200
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 125. According to PIB, 125 days.
Question 3. After the lifting of the stop in Bihar, in how many districts will regular work be available?
(a) 22
(b) 16
(c) 38
(d) 40
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 38. 22 flood-affected and 16 drought-affected, a total of 38 districts.
October 2026
Tamil Nadu: Order to Repair Rainwater Harvesting Structures
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Question 1. Under this Tamil Nadu order, the repair of the structures is in the context of the rain of which monsoon?
(a) Southwest monsoon
(b) Northeast monsoon
(c) Western disturbance
(d) Pre-monsoon rain
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Northeast monsoon. The order is in the context of the beginning of the northeast monsoon's rain.
Question 2. Who will chair the state-level coordination committee?
(a) Chief Secretary
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) District Collector
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Chief Secretary. The state-level committee will be chaired by the Chief Secretary and at the district level by the District Collector.
Question 3. In which year did Tamil Nadu make its rainwater harvesting guidelines?
(a) 1992
(b) 2002
(c) 2012
(d) 2022
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2002. According to The Hindu, the guidelines were made in 2002.
October 2026
PARAKH: Monthly District-Level Interventions to Address Learning Gaps
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Question 1. When was PARAKH established?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 8 February 2023
(d) 2024
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) 8 February 2023. PARAKH was established on 8 February 2023 by an NCERT notification.
Question 2. Of which institution is PARAKH a constituent unit?
(a) UGC
(b) NCERT
(c) NCTE
(d) AICTE
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) NCERT. PARAKH is the independent constituent unit of NCERT.
Question 3. Which classes were assessed in PRS 2024?
(a) Classes 1, 2 and 3
(b) Classes 3, 6 and 9
(c) Classes 5, 8 and 10
(d) Classes 9, 10 and 12
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Classes 3, 6 and 9. PRS 2024 was for Classes 3, 6 and 9.
October 2026
Wildlife Institute of India to Estimate Numbers of All Four Bear Species
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Question 1. How many species of bear are found in India?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Four. India has the Himalayan brown, Asiatic black, sloth and sun bears, that is, four species.
Question 2. In which region is the sun bear mainly found in India?
(a) North-East India
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Thar Desert
(d) Terai region
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) North-East India. A small part of the sun bear's range extends to North-East India.
Question 3. Where is the headquarters of WII?
(a) Bhopal
(b) Dehradun
(c) Jabalpur
(d) Mysuru
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Dehradun. WII is located in Dehradun.
October 2026
WHO Report: Inequality Within Countries in Noncommunicable Diseases
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Question 1. What is the main subject of this WHO report?
(a) Vaccination against communicable diseases
(b) Inequality within countries in noncommunicable diseases
(c) Nutrition-security schemes
(d) The maternal mortality rate
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Inequality within countries in noncommunicable diseases. The report is an assessment of within-country inequality in noncommunicable diseases and their risk factors.
Question 2. Which of the following is included among the risk factors in the report?
(a) Air pollution
(b) Population density
(c) Climate adaptation
(d) Road accidents
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) Air pollution. The WHO has treated alcohol, obesity/diet, physical inactivity, tobacco and air pollution as risk factors.
Question 3. What is SDG target 3.4 related to?
(a) Reducing premature mortality from NCDs
(b) Literacy
(c) Clean water
(d) Climate action
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a) Reducing premature mortality from NCDs. SDG 3.4's goal is to reduce premature mortality from NCDs by one-third by 2030.
October 2026
Ladakh: Kargil Hill Council Dissolved, Panchayat Elections on 21 November
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Question 1. On which date is polling for the panchayat halqa elections proposed in Ladakh?
(a) 21 November 2026
(b) 31 October 2026
(c) 15 December 2026
(d) 5 November 2026
See answer and reason
Answer: (a) 21 November 2026. The State Election Commission has proposed polling on 21 November 2026.
Question 2. The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council Act is of which year?
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 2003
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) 1997. The Act is of 1997; the Governor's assent was received on 8 October 1997.
Question 3. What is the total number of elected constituencies of the 8 districts notified by the administration?
(a) 52
(b) 80
(c) 100
(d) 120
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) 100. According to the report, 100 constituencies were notified, whereas earlier there were 52 councillors.
October 2026
Kashipur (Govisana): ASI's New Excavation
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Question 1. In which State is Kashipur (Govisana) located?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Haryana
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Uttarakhand. Kashipur is in the Udham Singh Nagar area of Uttarakhand; the ASI has begun a new excavation here.
Question 2. Kashipur has been identified with Govisana, which appears in the account of which Chinese traveller?
(a) Fa-Hien
(b) Hiuen Tsang
(c) I-Tsing
(d) Sung Yun
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Hiuen Tsang. According to the ASI, Cunningham identified Kashipur with Hiuen Tsang's Govisana.
Question 3. According to the report, the old pottery of Kashipur spans from which period to the early medieval period?
(a) Painted Grey Ware period
(b) Neolithic period
(c) Chalcolithic period
(d) Mauryan period
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Painted Grey Ware period. According to ASI records, the site remained inhabited from the PGW period to the early medieval period.
October 2026
The Skjern River - Denmark's River Restoration Model
Read the full article →October 2026
UNEP Emissions Gap Report 2026 - 'The Point of Return'
Read the full article →October 2026
Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) - India's 'India Stack' Story
Read the full article →October 2026
Badr MoU - Defence Cooperation Among Four Countries
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Question 1. How many countries are part of the Badr MoU?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Four. Qatar, Indonesia, Pakistan, Turkiye
Question 2. Where was it signed?
(a) Ankara
(b) Islamabad
(c) Doha
(d) Jakarta
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Doha.
Question 3. According to QNA, what does the name 'Badr' signify?
(a) War
(b) Full moon/complementarity
(c) Flag
(d) River
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Full moon/complementarity.
October 2026
SIMBEX-2026 - 33rd Edition in Visakhapatnam
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Question 1. SIMBEX is an exercise between India and which country?
(a) Australia
(b) Singapore
(c) Indonesia
(d) Vietnam
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Singapore.
Question 2. Where did the 33rd edition of SIMBEX-2026 begin?
(a) Kochi
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Chennai
(d) Port Blair
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Visakhapatnam.
Question 3. SIMBEX is associated with which service?
(a) Army
(b) Air Force
(c) Navy
(d) Coast Guard
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Navy.
October 2026
GRAP Stage-I - In Force in Delhi-NCR
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Question 1. At which AQI range is GRAP Stage-I applied?
(a) 101-200
(b) 201-300
(c) 301-400
(d) 400+
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 201-300.
Question 2. Who implements GRAP at present?
(a) CPCB
(b) EPCA
(c) CAQM
(d) NGT
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) CAQM.
Question 3. Which judicial direction is in GRAP's background?
(a) Godavarman
(b) M.C. Mehta 2016
(c) Kesavananda
(d) Puttaswamy
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) M.C. Mehta 2016.
October 2026
Index of Core Industries (ICI) — 7.9% in September 2026
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Question 1. ICI growth in September 2026 was:
(a) 5.1%
(b) 7.9%
(c) 9.8%
(d) 4.9%
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) 7.9%. 5.1% is the cumulative rate
Question 2. Which industry was newly added in the 2022-23 base series?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Iron ore
(c) Textiles
(d) Sugar
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Iron ore.
Question 3. Who publishes the ICI?
(a) RBI
(b) NSO
(c) OEA, DPIIT
(d) NITI Aayog
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) OEA, DPIIT.
October 2026
The eMudhra Certificate Incident and the Web Trust System
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. What type of organisation is eMudhra?
(a) Bank
(b) Certificate Authority
(c) Social media
(d) ISRO unit
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Certificate Authority.
Question 2. By which mechanism did Mozilla block the affected certificates?
(a) OneCRL
(b) DNSSEC
(c) VPN
(d) CAPTCHA
Answer and explanation
Answer: (a) OneCRL.
Question 3. Who regulates certificate issuers in India?
(a) CERT-In
(b) CCA
(c) TRAI
(d) NIC
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) CCA.
October 2026
CORSIA - Carbon Offsetting for International Aviation
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Question 1. CORSIA is related to emissions from which sector?
(a) Shipping
(b) International aviation
(c) Steel
(d) Agriculture
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) International aviation. It is a programme of the UN's ICAO; emissions from shipping, steel and agriculture are outside its scope.
Question 2. From when is CORSIA's mandatory phase?
(a) 2024
(b) 2026
(c) 2027
(d) 2030
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) 2027. The second phase runs from 2027 to 2035. Participation of countries falling under the specified international aviation activity criteria is mandatory in it; LDCs, SIDS and LLDCs are exempt, but they can participate voluntarily.
Question 3. Where is the headquarters of ICAO?
(a) Geneva
(b) Montreal
(c) Paris
(d) Vienna
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Montreal. ICAO is headquartered in Montreal, Canada; Geneva, Paris and Vienna are major centres of other UN bodies.
October 2026
Centaurus X-3: Discovery of a Rare Accretion Disk
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Question 1. The evidence of an accretion disk in Centaurus X-3 came from the data of which observatory?
(a) Hubble
(b) XMM-Newton
(c) James Webb
(d) AstroSat
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) XMM-Newton.
Question 2. The institution that conducted the study is:
(a) TIFR
(b) IIA
(c) Raman Research Institute
(d) PRL
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Raman Research Institute.
Question 3. In an HMXB, accretion usually takes place from:
(a) an accretion disk
(b) direct capture of the stellar wind
(c) a Roche lobe
(d) interstellar dust
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) direct capture of the stellar wind. This is exactly what makes the new discovery rare.
October 2026
LLLR-I: The Army's Improved Low-Level Light Weight Radar
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Question 1. With which company has the Ministry of Defence signed the contract for the purchase of the LLLR-I?
(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(b) Bharat Electronics Limited
(c) Bharat Dynamics Limited
(d) Mazagon Dock
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Bharat Electronics Limited. A contract of about Rs 770 crore, 21 October 2026.
Question 2. The LLLR-I is being procured primarily to counter which threat?
(a) Ballistic missiles
(b) Unmanned aerial systems (drones)
(c) Submarines
(d) Cyber attacks
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Unmanned aerial systems (drones). Tracking of mini/micro drones along with fighter-sized targets.
Question 3. In AESA technology, how is the radar beam steered?
(a) By mechanically rotating the antenna
(b) Electronically, without moving the antenna
(c) By changing mirrors
(d) Through satellite signals
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Electronically, without moving the antenna. This is AESA's core advantage over conventional radar.
October 2026
Dependence on Foreign Technology: India's Strategic Risks
Read the full article →October 2026
MPC Minutes: The Debate Within the Rate Hike
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Poland Strategic Partnership: The Significance of the Tusk Visit
Read the full article →October 2026
The Prime Minister's Address to the Nation and the Model Code of Conduct: Law, the Commission and Unanswered Questions
Read the full article →October 2026
MSCI Rebalancing: The May 2026 Review and the Market Fall of 29 May
Read the full article →October 2026
The Red Sea Crisis and India's Oil Security: Bab el-Mandeb Disruption, Russian Crude and the Options
Read the full article →October 2026
Ram Temple Trust: Structure, Accountability and the Question of Governance Reform
Read the full article →October 2026
Police in Plain Clothes: Identification, Law and Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Nifty500 Ahimsa Index: Value-Based Investing and Its Limits
Read the full article →October 2026
Maglev Trains: Technology, Cost and the Lesson of Japan's Chuo Project
Read the full article →October 2026
"Internet Shutdowns: Delhi's Orders, the 2024 Rules and the Anuradha Bhasin Principles"
Read the full article →October 2026
Indira Point: Lighthouse Protection and the Question of a Sensitive Coastal Area
Read the full article →October 2026
India-US Extradition: Charges, Treaty Conditions and the Question of Domestic Cases
Read the full article →October 2026
India's Three Inflation Indicators: How to Read Household Spending, Producer Cost and Demand Together
Read the full article →October 2026
150 Years of IACS: Indian Initiative, Raman's Discovery and the Institutional Base of Modern Science
Read the full article →October 2026
Hormuz Transit-Fee Dispute: Iran's Plan, America's Objection and International Law
Read the full article →October 2026
Timeline for Content Removal: NITI Aayog Seeks Tech Industry's Views on Feasibility
Read the full article →October 2026
Russia-China Closeness: Putin's Beijing Visit and India's Security Challenge
Read the full article →October 2026
Tenth Schedule's 'Merger' Route: Can Two-Thirds of a Legislature Party Merge Without the Original Party's Consent?
Read the full article →October 2026
Bonn Climate Talks (SB64): Key Terms Amid Gridlock
Read the full article →October 2026
FDI 2025-26: Gross Inflow Record ~$95 Billion, Net Only ~$7 Billion - Why the Gap?
Read the full article →October 2026
India-US Trade Talks: Claim of Substantial Progress, Signature Awaited
Read the full article →October 2026
Record Peak Power Demand of 270.8 GW: Heat, Cooling and the Grid's Night Challenge
Read the full article →October 2026
The Age of Drone Warfare: The Army's New Structures and the Lessons of Operation Sindoor
Read the full article →October 2026
The Energy Transition Challenge: A Race of Capacity, the Reality of Generation
Read the full article →October 2026
Delhi EV Policy 2026: From Incentives to Mandatory Registration - In Force from 1 July
Read the full article →October 2026
Cotton Import Duty Waiver: Exemption from 1 June to 31 October - Relief for the Textile Sector
Read the full article →October 2026
Definition of Acid Attack Victim: Internal Injuries Now Also Covered Under RPwD Act Benefits
Read the full article →October 2026
The Right to Trauma Care: The Supreme Court's Order and the States' Position
Read the full article →October 2026
"West Asia Crisis: Port Congestion, Exporters' Complaints and Rising Freight"
Read the full article →October 2026
Urban Fire Safety: The Lessons of Aliganj (Lucknow) and Malviya Nagar (Delhi)
Read the full article →October 2026
"Understanding Rising Bond Yields: Iran War, Fiscal Worries and RBI's Assessment"
Read the full article →October 2026
FPI Outflows: What Do the Equity and Debt Figures Say?
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: New shares or other securities can be issued in the primary market.
Statement 2: In the secondary market, the payment for every share purchase goes directly to the issuing company.
Statement 3: Net investment in a debt category is possible alongside a net outflow in equity.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (b) Only 1 and 3
The primary market relates to new issues. In the secondary market, an investor generally buys a security from another investor. The direction of flows can differ across asset categories in one period. So Statement 2 is wrong.
Question 2. What does negative net investment in a securities category generally indicate?
(a) Purchases exceeding sales in the given period
(b) Sales exceeding purchases in the given period
(c) All foreign investors' holding becoming zero
(d) The security's market value becoming zero
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: (b) Sales exceeding purchases in the given period
Net flow is the difference between a period's purchases and sales. It is not a measure of the total accumulated holding or of a security's market value.
October 2026
CrPI Act 2022: Police Collection of DNA Records - the System, Scope and Dispute
Read the full article →October 2026
Household Solar Adoption: What Is Holding Back PM Surya Ghar and PM-KUSUM?
Read the full article →October 2026
Seismic Doublet: Venezuela's Twin Earthquakes and the Faults Science Had Already Flagged
Read the full article →October 2026
Europe's Record Heatwave: Records, Alerts and UN Health Warnings
Read the full article →October 2026
Remarks from the Bench: Judicial Speech and Institutional Limits
Read the full article →October 2026
India's First Orbital Data Centre Satellite: Pixxel's 'Pathfinder' Plan
Read the full article →October 2026
Meta's $900 Million Investment in CRED: Series-H, $4.5 Billion Valuation and WhatsApp's New Chief
Read the full article →October 2026
Nicobar Tribal Council Election Row: Draft Rules 2026 and Traditional Self-Governance
Read the full article →October 2026
Election Symbol Rules: Can a 'Cockroach' Be an Election Symbol?
Read the full article →October 2026
Downblending: Uranium Dilution at the Heart of the US-Iran Agreement
Read the full article →October 2026
RBI 'State of the Economy': Resilience, but Supply Pressures and the West Asia Risk (22 May 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
What Happens If a Chief Minister Refuses to Resign? The Bengal Sequence and the Constitution (5-9 May 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
Medical Negligence Claim Survives the Doctor's Death: SC Explains the Doctrine of Survival of the Right to Sue (4 May 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
Railways Is a 'Consumer', Not a DDL: The Supreme Court's Electricity Surcharge Ruling and the Pressure on Railway Finances (8 May 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
Reproductive Autonomy of Women with Intellectual Disabilities: Karnataka HC's 'Best Interests' Order (17 June 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
No New Dams in the Upper Ganga: Three Ministries' Joint Position
Read the full article →October 2026
Passport Not Proof of Citizenship? Two Laws, Two Courts and the SIR Context (24-26 June 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
NASM-SR's First Salvo Test: Two Missiles from a Helicopter, 'Man-in-Loop' and 'Waterline Hit' (29 April 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
Kerala's Dedicated Elderly Department: Demographic Compulsion, Policies and Challenges (19-29 May 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
"India-Russia RELOS Agreement: Logistics Access Limits, the 'Permanent Deployment' Rumour and the Arctic Angle"
Read the full article →October 2026
India's Fisheries Debate: the Inshore Crisis Behind the 91.1% 'Sustainable' Claim (29 July 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
Draft National Health Research Policy 2026: Disease-Burden Alignment, Three-Tier Governance and the 'Impact' Test (13 July 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
First Hydrogen Train 'Namo Green Rail' Starts on Jind-Sonipat: 10 Coaches, 2400 kW
Read the full article →October 2026
Seventh Minor Irrigation Census Report Released: UP on Top, Decline in 8 States; Comparison with the Sixth Census (25 September 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
New ICI Series: Base Year 2022-23, Nine Industries and New Weights
Read the full article →October 2026
Chabahar Port: US Strike, India's Safe Terminal and an Uncertain Future
Read the full article →October 2026
Supreme Court's Zero Tolerance for AI-Fabricated 'Precedents': NCLT and NCLAT Orders Quashed (2 July 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
The Memory Chip Shortage and Price Rise: The AI Boom's Bill Reaches Consumers (June 2026)
Read the full article →October 2026
June 2026 Protests in Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir: Reserved Refugee Seats, JAAC Ban and the Three-Phase Election
Read the full article →October 2026
Starmer's Exit and Burnham's Rise: How Britain Changed Prime Ministers Without a General Election
Read the full article →October 2026
New Estimate of AMOC Weakening: Possible Impact on the Indian Monsoon
Read the full article →October 2026
PETA: The Leading International Organisation of the Animal Rights Movement
Read the full article →October 2026
Puzhal (Red Hills) Reservoir: Chennai's Historic Drinking Water System
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Question 1. In which district of which State is the Red Hills reservoir located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh - Chittoor
(b) Tamil Nadu - Tiruvallur
(c) Karnataka - Kolar
(d) Kerala - Palakkad
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu - Tiruvallur. Near Chennai.
Question 2. In which year was the Jones Tower built and what is its function?
(a) 1872; water distribution
(b) 1881; gravity intake of raw water from the lake
(c) 1914; water treatment
(d) 1944; flood control
Answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1881; gravity intake of raw water from the lake. Located at the lake's deepest point.
Question 3. In Chennai's early water supply system, water was diverted from which river?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Adyar
(c) Kosasthalaiyar
(d) Palar
Answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Kosasthalaiyar. From the Tamaraipakkam dam.
October 2026
Taleju Bhawani Temple, Kathmandu, Opens on Mahanavami
Read the full article →October 2026
Kharg Island: Iran's Oil Export Gateway and Strategic Importance
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Question 1. Which country's main oil-export terminal is Kharg Island?
(a) Iraq
(b) Iran
(c) Qatar
(d) United Arab Emirates
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Iran. In the Persian Gulf, near Bushehr.
Question 2. Kharg Island is located near which of the following?
(a) Bandar Abbas
(b) Bushehr
(c) The Strait of Hormuz
(d) The Gulf of Oman
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Bushehr. About 55 km northwest of Bushehr.
Question 3. With regard to the March 2026 American attacks, the correct statement is:
(a) The oil terminal was completely destroyed
(b) The storage of naval mines was targeted; the oil facilities remained safe
(c) The island was captured
(d) There was no attack
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) The storage of naval mines was targeted; the oil facilities remained safe. As per Britannica and the Reuters report.
October 2026
Cybersecurity in the Banking Sector: In the Context of the SBI Data Breach
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"The expansion of digital banking has made cybersecurity a key issue of financial stability." Comment in the light of recent events and offer suggestions for Indian banks.
(Answer in 250 words) | 15 marks
Answer Outline
Introduction: The expansion of digital banking and the concentration of PII have widened the risk surface; the recent bank data-breach example.
Main Body: Nature of the threat: data sales on the dark web, phishing, identity theft; third-party and legacy-system risks. Link with financial stability: customer trust, operational continuity and the systemic effect of reputational risk. Regulatory framework: obligations under the DPDP Act 2023; RBI's cybersecurity directions; CERT-In's role. Suggestions: zero-trust architecture, regular audits, timely incident reporting, customer awareness, inter-agency coordination.
Conclusion: Balanced security investment is needed at all three levels - technology, process and people.
October 2026
Doppler Velocity Images of the Solar Corona from Aditya-L1's VELC
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Question 1. VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph) is a payload of which mission?
(a) Chandrayaan-3
(b) Aditya-L1
(c) Gaganyaan
(d) XPoSat
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Aditya-L1. The principal payload of India's first solar mission.
Question 2. Choose the correct statement about Aditya-L1's orbit:
(a) It is in Earth's geostationary orbit
(b) It is stationary at the L1 point
(c) It is in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point
(d) It is in a polar orbit of the Sun
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) It is in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point. As per ISRO, placed in a halo orbit in January 2024.
Question 3. Doppler velocity images will make it possible to study the propagation of which solar event?
(a) Solar flare
(b) Coronal mass ejection
(c) Sunspots
(d) Solar storm particle stream
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Coronal mass ejection. As per the report, information on the propagation of CMEs in the Sun-Earth direction.
October 2026
Green Diwali Campaign 2026: a Nationwide Drive for a Cracker-Free, Clean Diwali
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Question 1. Which ministry has supported the Green Diwali Campaign 2026?
(a) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) The Ministry of Health
(d) The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (b) the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. PIB's release of 20 October 2026.
Question 2. On how many NCAP cities is this campaign specially focused?
(a) 100
(b) 122
(c) 130
(d) 150
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (c) 130. The 130 cities of the National Clean Air Programme.
Question 3. What is the full form of Mission LiFE?
(a) Living for Earth
(b) Lifestyle for Environment
(c) Life for Everyone
(d) Local Initiatives for Ecology
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (b) Lifestyle for Environment. Lifestyle for Environment.
October 2026
5th Asian Para Games 2026: Opening in Aichi-Nagoya and India's Day 1 Medals
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Question 1. Which is the host region of the 5th Asian Para Games 2026?
(a) Hangzhou
(b) Jakarta
(c) Aichi-Nagoya
(d) Kuala Lumpur
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) Aichi-Nagoya. Opened on 18 October 2026, Nagoya.
Question 2. How many para sports and how many medal events are included in these Games?
(a) 22 sports, 537 events
(b) 18 sports, 492 events
(c) 16 sports, 400 events
(d) 20 sports, 500 events
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) 18 sports, 492 events. According to the International Paralympic Committee's report.
Question 3. Which sport has returned to the Asian Para Games after an interval of 12 years?
(a) Wheelchair basketball
(b) Wheelchair rugby
(c) Boccia
(d) Goalball
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Wheelchair rugby. It returned at Aichi-Nagoya 2026.
October 2026
UNESCO Tentative List: Three New Indian Sites Proposed
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Question 1. Where is the Karst-Mud Volcano Complex of Baratang, recently submitted to UNESCO's Tentative List, located?
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Andaman and Nicobar
(c) The Odisha coast
(d) Goa
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Andaman and Nicobar. About 100 km north of Sri Vijaya Puram.
Question 2. How are Baratang's mud volcanoes different from ordinary volcanoes?
(a) They are inside the ocean
(b) Cold mud comes out of them under gas pressure instead of magma/lava
(c) They become active only in the monsoon season
(d) They have been made artificially
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Cold mud comes out of them under gas pressure instead of magma/lava. The pressure of methane and hydrogen sulphide gases is the main factor.
Question 3. In which category and under which criteria has Sirpur been submitted?
(a) Natural - (viii)(ix)(x)
(b) Mixed - (i)(vii)
(c) Cultural - (ii)(iv)
(d) Cultural - (i)(iii)(vi)
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Cultural - (ii)(iv). A cultural site located in the Mahasamund district of Chhattisgarh.
October 2026
Blue Straggler Star with a Likely Brown Dwarf Companion
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1. On the basis of this discovery, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The orbital period of this binary system is about 5.6 hours.
Statement 2: The mass of the companion body is above the hydrogen-burning limit.
Statement 3: The discovery is based on radial velocity measurements.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only Statement 1
(b) Only Statements 2 and 3
(c) Only Statements 1 and 3
(d) All three statements
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Only Statements 1 and 3. Statement 2 is wrong: the companion (~0.056 solar mass) is below the hydrogen-burning limit, which is why it is a likely brown dwarf.
2. In which star cluster was this system found?
(a) NGC 2243
(b) M 67
(c) 47 Tucanae
(d) Omega Centauri
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the abstract of the paper the system is in the open star cluster NGC 2243.
3. What is the puzzle of blue straggler stars?
(a) Even in a cluster of the same age they look brighter and bluer than the main-sequence turn-off
(b) They are found only alone, outside any cluster
(c) They do not emit light and are seen only by radio waves
(d) Their age has been measured as more than the age of the universe
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the press (DST), although all stars of a cluster are of the same age, blue stragglers look brighter and bluer, which does not match standard stellar evolution.
October 2026
Human Evolution over the Last 10,000 Years: Evidence of Directional Selection from Ancient DNA
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1. On the basis of this study, consider the following statements:
1. The team compared 15,836 ancient DNA sequences with the sequences of 6,438 modern people.
2. The rise in the frequency of the CCR5 Δ32 variant occurred after the emergence of HIV.
3. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3. Statement 2 is wrong: as per the press, this rise occurred sometime between 6,000 and 2,000 years ago, while HIV emerged in the early 20th century; statements 1 and 3 accord with the press report.
2. Which gene's disease-causing variant rose from 0% to 20% over the last 4,000 years?
(a) HLA-DQB1
(b) CCR5
(c) ABO
(d) BRCA1
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). HLA-DQB1's variant linked to coeliac disease (press). CCR5 Δ32's rise is from 2% to ~8% (6,000-2,000 years ago); in ABO, the B variant's rise is over 6,000 years.
3. On what principle is the new method of identifying directional selection based?
(a) Consistent trends in allele-frequency change in an ancient-DNA time series, tested apart from migration and drift
(b) Calculating change across generations by measuring skeleton height
(c) Comparing mutation rates in modern genomes, without ancient samples
(d) Chemical layer analysis of the soil of archaeological sites
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). As per the paper's abstract, the method tests consistent trends in allele frequencies over time and separates selection from migration, population structure and other processes.
October 2026
BITS Hyderabad's Phosphorus-Doped Graphene Electrode: Improving Supercapacitors
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1. On the basis of this study, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A mixture of liquid polyimide and phosphoric acid was coated on filter paper to make the electrode.
Statement 2: Chemical vapour deposition (CVD) was essential to make the graphene mesh.
Statement 3: The purpose of phosphorus doping was to increase the conductivity and electrochemical activity of graphene.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3. Statement 2 is wrong: according to the press, the blue diode laser created the porous graphene mesh without expensive techniques like CVD or lithography.
2. According to the authors' laboratory announcement, what was the specific capacitance of this PLIG electrode?
(a) 350 F/g
(b) 47 F/g
(c) 341 F/g
(d) 98 F/g
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). 350 F/g specific capacitance (authors' laboratory announcement). (47 Wh/kg is the energy density and 341 W/kg the power density; 98% is the capacitance retention.)
3. With reference to supercapacitors, which statement is correct?
(a) They can store and release energy faster than conventional batteries
(b) Their energy density is generally higher than that of batteries
(c) They are used only in nuclear power plants
(d) Charge-discharge cycles are not possible in them
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). Supercapacitors give fast charge-discharge and high power density; their energy density is generally lower than batteries (The Hindu).
October 2026
Ensitrelvir: The SCORPIO-PEP Trial of Covid Prevention After Exposure (NEJM)
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1. Based on the SCORPIO-PEP trial, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Household contacts of Covid patients were given ensitrelvir or placebo within 72 hours of the onset of the index patient's symptoms.
Statement 2: During the trial, serious adverse events in the ensitrelvir arm were clearly higher than in the placebo arm.
Statement 3: There was no Covid-related hospitalisation or death in either arm.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All three
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only 1 and 3. Statement 2 is wrong: serious adverse events were equal in both arms (0.2% each); total adverse events were also nearly the same (15.1% versus 15.5%).
2. Which protein of SARS-CoV-2 does ensitrelvir target?
(a) Main protease (3C-like protease / Mpro)
(b) The RBD part of the spike protein
(c) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp)
(d) Papain-like protease (PLpro) specifically
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Ensitrelvir is an oral inhibitor of the 3C-like protease (main protease); PLpro is the other protease (The Hindu).
3. In the mITT analysis group, what was the incidence of symptomatic laboratory-confirmed Covid by day 10 and the risk ratio?
(a) 9.0% versus 2.9%; risk ratio 3.1
(b) 21.5% versus 14%; risk ratio 0.65
(c) 2.9% versus 9.0%; risk ratio 0.33 (95% CI 0.22-0.49)
(d) 15.1% versus 15.5%; risk ratio 0.97
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). 2.9% versus 9.0%, risk ratio 0.33 (95% CI 0.22-0.49; P<0.001). (21.5%/14% is symptom-agnostic infection; 15.1%/15.5% is adverse events.)
October 2026
International Energy Agency (IEA): Structure, Membership and India's Connection
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1. Where is the headquarters of the International Energy Agency (IEA)?
(a) Vienna
(b) Geneva
(c) Paris
(d) Brussels
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (c) Paris. The IEA was established in 1974 against the background of the oil crisis, and its headquarters is in Paris (France).
2. With reference to the International Energy Agency (IEA), consider the following statements:
1. It was established in 1974.
2. It is an autonomous body established within the OECD framework.
3. It has 32 full member countries and 14 association countries.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All three
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (d) All three. The IEA was established in 1974; it is an autonomous body within the OECD framework; and, according to iea.org, it has 32 full members, 14 association countries and 6 accession countries.
3. With reference to the India-IEA relationship, consider the following statements:
1. India is a full member of the IEA.
2. India became an IEA association country in March 2017.
3. Full members have to maintain emergency oil stocks equal to 90 days of net imports.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All three
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: India is not a full member but has been an association country since March 2017. The obligation to hold emergency oil stocks equal to 90 days of net imports applies to full members.
October 2026
Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary: Tamil Nadu's Ramsar Wetland
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Question 1. In which district is Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary?
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Madurai
(d) Tiruchirappalli
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Tiruppur. The freshwater lake lies in Neruperichal and Sarkar Periyapalayam villages, about ten kilometres north of Tiruppur city.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a freshwater lake covering 125.9 hectares.
Statement 2: It was declared a bird sanctuary in 2022.
Statement 3: It was designated Ramsar site 2549 on 16 January 2024.
Which statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d) All three. The area, 2022 sanctuary notification and RSIS designation details are all correct.
Question 3. Consider the following statements about its ecology:
Statement 1: King Nanjarayan restored the lake several centuries ago.
Statement 2: Vachellia nilotica trees on embankments provide nesting sites for waterbirds.
Statement 3: It has records of 291 bird species.
Which statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All three
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. There are 191 recorded bird species, not 291. The historical restoration and nesting role of Vachellia nilotica are correctly stated.
October 2026
Conversion and Reservation: Six Postulates of the Supreme Court
Read the full article →October 2026
US Secretary of State's Jamnagar Visit: Signs of India-US Energy Cooperation
Read the full article →November 2026
China’s Export Controls: TBMs and India’s Supply Chain
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Self-reliance in important intermediate and capital goods means more than domestic assembly of the final product. Analyse in the context of supply-chain resilience. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
- Introduction: Define intermediate and capital goods and explain the risk of import concentration.
- Body: Use TBMs, the solar value chain and petrochemicals to explain upstream dependence. Discuss domestic technology, skills, testing, repair, source diversification and cost competitiveness. Do not describe a proposed policy as an approved scheme.
- Conclusion: Recommend combining capacity in selected important links with open, diversified trade.
October 2026
AI-Based Himalayan Flood Mapping (Model Assessment): 85% of Uttarakhand Districts Susceptible (CNN U-Net)
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
1. The framework uses the U-Net version of a CNN.
2. It includes 14 hydro-geomorphological factors.
3. The Local Convexity Factor reduces overestimation in sedimentary zones.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and reason
Answer: (c) All three. All three statements appear in the abstract.
2. According to The Times of India, what percentage of Uttarakhand's districts were reported as highly susceptible to floods?
(a) About 45%
(b) About 85%
(c) About 66%
(d) About 97%
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to the press, about 85% of Uttarakhand's districts are susceptible. For Himachal the press reported risk to more than 45% of the state, without clarifying the basis; 97.12% is the model's accuracy, not the share of districts.
3. According to the press report, which were reported as the most prominent factors of flood risk in the region?
(a) Rainfall, temperature and soil
(b) NDVI, TWI and elevation
(c) Population density and roads
(d) Glaciers and latitude
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to the press, vegetation cover (NDVI), Topographic Wetness Index (TWI) and elevation emerged as the most prominent risk factors.
October 2026
The Indian Plate Is Not 'Rigid': Evidence of Subtle Internal Deformation in a cGPS Study
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1. On the basis of the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The study used data from 34 cGPS stations.
Statement 2: The Northern Tectonic Block moves westward along the Narmada-Son Lineament relative to the Southern Tectonic Block.
Statement 3: The study concludes that the Indian plate is completely rigid.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. The abstract supports non-rigid behaviour - statement 3 is the opposite of it.
2. According to The Hindu, 17 of the 34 cGPS stations belong to which network?
(a) NAVIC
(b) GAGAN
(c) IRNSS
(d) Bhuvan
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the report, 17 stations belong to the GAGAN (GPS-Aided GEO Augmented Navigation) network; NAVIC/IRNSS are navigation-satellite systems, not ground-station networks.
3. Which of the following details is from the press report, not from the research paper's abstract?
(a) The NTB's westward motion of up to 2.5 mm/year relative to the STB
(b) The rise in anticlockwise rotation from the STB to the NTB
(c) The India-Eurasia collision began about 50-55 million years ago
(d) A refined Euler pole and an updated Indian Reference Frame
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). The collision's 50-55-million-year timeline is in The Hindu's report; (a), (b) and (d) are in the abstract.
October 2026
Vaccinium piliferum: Rare Wild Relative of the Blueberry Rediscovered in Arunachal After 188 Years
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Vaccinium piliferum was rediscovered from Changlang district after an interval of 188 years.
Statement 2: It was first collected by William Griffith in 1836 from the Mishmi Hills.
Statement 3: It is a new species described in 2026.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. This is a rediscovery, not the description of a new species - Statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, where was Vaccinium piliferum rediscovered?
(a) Vijaynagar, Changlang district, Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Tawang, West Kameng, Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Ziro, Lower Subansiri, Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Namdapha, Tirap, Arunachal Pradesh
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). Per the report, the rediscovery took place in the forests of Vijaynagar (Changlang) near tributary streams of the Noa-Dihing; the other options are different areas.
3. Which of the following details is from the press report, not from the research paper's abstract?
(a) The species' first record is from the Mishmi Hills in 1836
(b) The paper has photographs of flowers and a morphological description
(c) Only 16 plants were recorded in the field survey
(d) The paper gives a population assessment for conservation
Answer and reason
Answer: (c). The count of 16 plants is in The Hindu's report; (a), (b) and (d) are in the abstract.
October 2026
Cyphostemma annamalaii: A New Species of the Grape Family (Vitaceae) from the Southern Eastern Ghats
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Cyphostemma annamalaii is a new species of the grape family (Vitaceae).
Statement 2: Its closest resemblance has been stated to be with Cyphostemma setosum.
Statement 3: As per the abstract, the berries of this species are red.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. As per the abstract the berries are yellow; the red fruit is the press description of C. setosum - Statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, where was Cyphostemma annamalaii found?
(a) Sanjeevi Hill, Viluppuram district, Tamil Nadu
(b) Anamudi, Idukki district, Kerala
(c) Mawsynram, Khasi Hills, Meghalaya
(d) Kodaikanal, Palani Hills, Tamil Nadu
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a). As per the report, the discovery was made on Sanjeevi Hill (Viluppuram, Tamil Nadu) in the southern Eastern Ghats; the other options are different regions.
3. In whose honour was the species name "annamalaii" given?
(a) The Annamalai hills
(b) Annamalai Chettiar, founder of Annamalai University
(c) The student who discovered the species
(d) A former director of the Botanical Survey of India
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). According to The Hindu, the species was named in honour of Annamalai Chettiar, the founder of Annamalai University.
October 2026
Anaphalis sahyadrica: New Plant Species from the High-Altitude Grasslands of the Western Ghats
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Anaphalis sahyadrica is a new species of the Asteraceae family.
Statement 2: Its closest morphological similarity is stated to be with A. marcescens.
Statement 3: According to the abstract, it is a species of low-altitude coastal plains.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. The species belongs to montane grasslands and shola edges, not coastal plains — Statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, from which places has Anaphalis sahyadrica been reported?
(a) Anamudi and Meesapulimala
(b) Shendurney and Peechi-Vazhani
(c) Silent Valley and Parambikulam
(d) Eravikulam and Agasthyamalai
View answer and explanation
Answer: (a). The report names the Anamudi and Meesapulimala areas; (b) and (c) are locations of other recent discoveries.
3. Which of the following details is from the press quote (Dr Nair), and not from the abstract of the research paper?
(a) The closest similarity is with A. marcescens
(b) The paper contains SEM images of the cypsela
(c) The species grows above 2,200 metres and bears 90-120 capitula
(d) It differs from the related species in leaf base and phyllary
View answer and explanation
Answer: (c). The altitude and the capitula count are in Dr Nair's quote; (a), (b) and (d) are in the abstract.
October 2026
Humboldtia nairiana: New Evergreen Tree Species from Kerala's Shendurney
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1. Based on the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The closest relative of Humboldtia nairiana is H. ponmudiana.
Statement 2: All valid taxa of the genus Humboldtia are confined to the Western Ghats.
Statement 3: The authors have assessed the species as Data Deficient under IUCN criteria.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are in the paper. Of the 11 taxa, 10 belong to the Ghats; H. laurifolia belongs to Sri Lanka - Statement 2 is wrong.
2. According to the research paper, where and when was the holotype of Humboldtia nairiana collected?
(a) Shendurney, 2022
(b) Chinikkala, Kollam, 2010
(c) Palode arboretum, 2026
(d) Agasthyamalai peak, 2015
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). The collection is of 2010; 2022 is the year of ex-situ flowering; the arboretum is the conservation site, not the type locality.
3. Which statement about the Data Deficient classification is correct?
(a) It is the species' status in the official IUCN Red List
(b) It is the authors' assessment based on the IUCN (2024) criteria
(c) It is part of the Kerala government's wildlife list
(d) It is a category of a CITES appendix
View answer and explanation
Answer: (b). In the paper, the authors applied the IUCN Red List criteria to make the DD assessment; it is not about an official Red List listing.
October 2026
Myiophanes kempi: Assassin Bug Rediscovered in Andaman Caves After 100 Years
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1. On the basis of the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: This is the first report of Myiophanes kempi from the Andaman Islands.
Statement 2: The specimens collected in 2019 were two males.
Statement 3: According to the abstract, the species' distribution extended north-west of the original location.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. The distribution extended more than 1,000 km to the south-east, not the north-west - Statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, who originally described Myiophanes kempi, and when?
(a) W.E. China, 1924
(b) Manchi Shirish S., 2019
(c) The Siju cave survey team, 1922
(d) ZSI researchers, 1924
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). British entomologist William Edward China described it in 1924; 1922 is the year the specimens were collected, 2019 that of the rediscovery collection.
3. Which of the following is from the abstract of the research paper, not from the press?
(a) The paper gives the first detailed illustration of the male genitalia
(b) The specimens were matched with a photograph of the NHM London syntype female
(c) The species was not found in the 2019 Siju survey
(d) The bug spends its entire life cycle in darkness
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). (b), (c) and (d) are details from The Hindu's report; the claim of the male-genitalia illustration is in the abstract.
October 2026
Drawida vazhania: A New Earthworm Species from Kerala's Vazhani Dam Area
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1. On the basis of the abstract of the research paper, consider the following statements:
1. Drawida vazhania has been placed in the Barwelli species-group.
2. Its closest similarity has been stated to be with D. barwelli (Beddard, 1886).
3. According to the abstract, the Barwelli group now has a total of five species.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. According to the abstract the group now has seven species, not five - statement 3 is incorrect.
2. What is the place of discovery of Drawida vazhania?
(a) Silent Valley National Park, Palakkad
(b) Vazhani Dam area, Thrissur district
(c) Sholayar forests, Kozhikode
(d) Agasthyamalai, Thiruvananthapuram
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Both the abstract and the press give the Vazhani Dam area, Thrissur; the press links it to the Peechi-Vazhani Wildlife Sanctuary. (a) is the place in this month's other news (M. girishi, D. reynoldsi).
3. Which match about the count of Drawida species is correct?
(a) Abstract: India 83, Ghats 55
(b) Abstract: India 82, Ghats 54
(c) Press: India 82, Ghats 54
(d) The count is the same in both sources
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The abstract has 82/54; the press has 83/55, citing the researchers. This source difference is recorded in the kit.
October 2026
Two New Earthworms of Silent Valley: Moniligaster girishi and Drawida reynoldsi
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1. On the basis of the research paper's abstract, consider the following statements:
1. Moniligaster girishi is related to the gravelyi species group.
2. Drawida reynoldsi is related to the robusta species group.
3. According to the abstract, India's recognised moniligastrid species now number 70.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. According to the abstract, India's moniligastrid species number 95 (70 is the press's count for the Western Ghats), so statement 3 is wrong.
2. According to The Hindu, Moniligaster girishi is named in honour of whom?
(a) ZSI wasp taxonomist P. Girish Kumar
(b) Canadian earthworm expert John Warren Reynolds
(c) A forest officer of Silent Valley
(d) A vice-chancellor of Mahatma Gandhi University
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). The person named in (b) is associated with the name Drawida reynoldsi. Both namings are as per the press report.
3. Which of the following is from the research paper's abstract, not from the press?
(a) A revised key to the genus Moniligaster was also presented
(b) The M. girishi specimen was collected from near Chembotti
(c) The Western Ghats' moniligastrid species now number 70
(d) About 43% of Tamil Nadu's recorded Drawida species are in the Nilgiri hills
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). (b), (c) and (d) are details of The Hindu's report; the abstract has the revised key and the all-India count of 95.
October 2026
Pebble Crab Lyphira ngankee Recorded for the First Time on the Odisha Coast: From the South China Sea to the Bay of Bengal
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper on Lyphira ngankee, consider the following statements:
1. This is the first record of this species in Indian waters.
2. Its type locality is China's Nan'ao Island.
3. According to the abstract, it was described in 2026 as a species new to science.How many of the statements above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. The species was described by Rahayu and Ng in 2024; this is a "first record", not a new species.
2. According to the abstract, where were the Indian samples of Lyphira ngankee found?
(a) As trawler bycatch at the Bahbalpur fishing harbour in Odisha
(b) From Chilika Lake
(c) From the Andaman Sea
(d) From the Sundarbans delta
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). The abstract states Bahbalpur (Odisha) and the likely source as the Bay of Bengal.
3. Which of the following points is from the research paper's abstract, not from the press?
(a) This is the first record of the species since its description and a range extension from the South China Sea to the eastern Indian Ocean
(b) This work was done by ZSI researchers
(c) Further study is needed on the species' ecology
(d) The species was earlier known only from the South China Sea
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). (b) and (c) are in The Times of India; (d) is also a press formulation.
October 2026
Two New Marine Nematodes from the Tamil Nadu Coast
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1. On the basis of the abstract of the research paper on Corononema dhriti and Epacanthion indica, consider the following statements:
1. Both species were described from the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu.
2. Corononema dhriti is said to differ from the three known species of its genus.
3. According to the abstract, only two species of the genus Epacanthion are known.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. The abstract says that Epacanthion has 28 valid species.
2. According to PIB, in whose honour was Corononema dhriti named?
(a) ZSI Director Dr Dhriti Banerjee
(b) The Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu
(c) The mother of the authors
(d) The name of India
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). According to PIB, the name is in honour of Dr Dhriti Banerjee; Epacanthion indica is named after India.
3. Which of the following is from the abstract of the research paper and not from PIB?
(a) The 28 valid species of Epacanthion are divided into four groups on the basis of male characters
(b) The genus Corononema was earlier recorded from Australia, Thailand and Vietnam
(c) E. indica is a microscopic predator
(d) C. dhriti is named in honour of Dr Dhriti Banerjee
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). (b), (c) and (d) are in the PIB press release.
October 2026
Kavaratti's Micro-Crustacean Indiaphonte bijoyi: A New Genus and New Species
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper about Indiaphonte bijoyi, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is described as both a new genus and a new species.
Statement 2: It was described from Kavaratti island.
Statement 3: According to the abstract, it is a bird.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. It is an organism of Harpacticoida, not a bird.
2. According to The Hindu, Indiaphonte bijoyi is a member of which class?
(a) Copepoda
(b) Aves
(c) Reptilia
(d) Amphibia
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (a). The report places it in the Laophontidae family of the Copepoda class.
3. Which of the following belongs to the research paper's abstract, not to the press?
(a) The new genus Indiaphonte was proposed after comparison with Tapholeon and Folioquinpes
(b) Laophontidae has 350 species
(c) The female's length is 518 to 772 micrometres
(d) Harpacticoid copepods are considered bio-indicators
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (a). (b), (c) and (d) are in The Hindu's report.
October 2026
Two New Marine Worm Species from the West Bengal Coast
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1. On the basis of the abstract of the paper on the new species of Nereididae, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Both new species were found in intertidal areas.
Statement 2: With them the total number of Nereididae on the Indian coast became 73.
Statement 3: According to the abstract both new species belong to the genus Namalycastis.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; one species is of Namalycastis and the other of Nereis.
2. According to the abstract, which feature is included in the identification of Namalycastis solenotognatha?
(a) Absence of dorsal chaetae (notochaetae)
(b) Presence of wings
(c) Presence of a shell
(d) A backbone
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). The abstract mentions the heterogomph spinigers in its anterior segments and the absence of notochaetae.
3. According to India TV News (ZSI statement), where were the new worm species found?
(a) The Digha and Bankiput areas of Purba Medinipur
(b) Freshwater lakes of the Sundarbans
(c) Streams of the Himalaya
(d) The deserts of Rajasthan
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the discovery is from these coastal areas of Purba Medinipur in West Bengal.
October 2026
Apristurus drona: A New Deepwater Catshark Species from the Arabian Sea off Kerala's Kollam Coast
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1. Based on the abstract of the research paper on Apristurus drona, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is based on four specimens obtained from a depth of 400-650 m.
Statement 2: It has been placed in the A. brunneus subgroup of the genus Apristurus.
Statement 3: The abstract declares it Endangered on the IUCN.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; the abstract carries no conservation category.
2. Per the abstract, what is correct about the molecularly closest relatives of Apristurus drona?
(a) They are from distant places (the Pacific and New Zealand)
(b) They all live on the Kollam slope
(c) They all live in the fresh water of the Indian Ocean
(d) They are not mentioned in the abstract
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). The abstract mentions A. nayakai, A. macrorhynchus and A. exsanguis.
3. Per the New Indian Express, how were the specimens of Apristurus drona obtained?
(a) As bycatch of deep-sea shrimp trawlers
(b) From coastal tourism boats
(c) From freshwater rivers
(d) In a bird survey
Answer and reason
Answer: (a). Per the report, the specimens came from the bycatch of shrimp trawlers landed at Shakthikulangara harbour.
October 2026
New Tiger Moth Genus Antaram idukki: Idukki's (Kerala) Rare Discovery
Read the full article →October 2026
New Lichen Species Buellia maharajensis: Mathikettan Shola National Park
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1. With reference to Buellia maharajensis, on the basis of the abstract, consider the following statements:
1. It is a saxicolous lichen described from Mathikettan Shola National Park.
2. It is like Buellia quartziana in morphology.
3. It differs from B. quartziana because atranorin is present in it.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b) only two. Statements 1 and 2 are in the abstract. Statement 3 is wrong; the difference is of the absence of atranorin.
2. According to the abstract, which two Buellia species were recorded from Kerala for the first time?
(a) B. hemispherica and B. nilgiriensis
(b) B. maharajensis and B. quartziana
(c) B. quartziana and B. hemispherica
(d) B. nilgiriensis and B. maharajensis
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). B. maharajensis is a new species; B. hemispherica and B. nilgiriensis are new records for Kerala.
3. According to The Hindu, in whose honour was the species named maharajensis?
(a) The 150th anniversary of Maharaja's College, Ernakulam
(b) A former forest officer
(c) The king of Kerala
(d) The old name of Mathikettan Shola
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the report, the name was chosen in honour of the academic heritage of Maharaja's College.
October 2026
Ariosoma cmfriense: A New Conger Eel from the Arabian Sea
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1. With reference to Ariosoma cmfriense, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It has been described on the basis of a single specimen.
Statement 2: In the analysis of the COI gene it came out as the sister lineage of Ariosoma indicum.
Statement 3: According to the paper, the difference of about 7% in COI proves that it is only a subspecies of A. indicum.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect; according to the abstract, the difference of about 7% lies outside the normal range among individuals of one species and favours a separate species.
2. According to CMFRI, under the research component of which national programme was Ariosoma cmfriense discovered?
(a) Deep Ocean Mission (Ministry of Earth Sciences)
(b) Project Tiger
(c) Namami Gange
(d) National Mission for Green India
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). CMFRI has described it as a research component of the Deep Ocean Mission of MoES.
3. On what basis was the species named "cmfriense"?
(a) After the village of the discovery site
(b) After the institute, in honour of the 80th anniversary of ICAR-CMFRI
(c) After a fisherman
(d) On the basis of colour
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). According to CMFRI, the species was named after the institute on the occasion of its 80th anniversary.
October 2026
Gitchak nakana: The Blind Loach from a Well in Assam
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1. With reference to Gitchak nakana, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is a fish found in a dug well in Assam.
Statement 2: The research paper calls it the first groundwater-dwelling (phreatobitic) fish of Northeast India.
Statement 3: It is a species found in the limestone caves of Meghalaya.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong, because all specimens were found in a well in Assam (Goalpara).
2. What does the term "phreatobite" mean?
(a) An organism living in groundwater (an aquifer)
(b) An organism living only in the depths of the sea
(c) An organism living in glaciers
(d) An organism living only in deserts
View answer and reason
Answer: (a). In the research paper, fishes living in aquifers are called phreatobitic.
3. According to the research paper, which feature of Gitchak nakana is correct?
(a) Dark-coloured body and large eyes
(b) No external eyes and no roof to the skull
(c) Length over one metre
(d) Found only in the salt water of the sea
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to the research paper, it has no external eyes and no roof to the skull. Its maximum length is about 20 mm.
October 2026
Neolissochilus pnar: Genome of the Largest Cavefish
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1. With reference to the genome study of Neolissochilus pnar, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: It is described as an endemic species of the limestone caves of Meghalaya.
Statement 2: The species has been described for the first time in this paper.
Statement 3: The genome was sequenced with PacBio long-read technology.How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. This paper is about the genome; the species was already known.
2. According to the paper, on what basis is N. pnar mainly separated from its closest species?
(a) Lack of pigment and eyes not being visible in adults
(b) Living in sea water
(c) Having twice the number of fins
(d) Migrating in Himalayan rivers
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). In the abstract, lack of pigment and the absence or reduction of eyes are given as the main difference.
3. According to the paper, which is the closest relative of N. pnar?
(a) Neolissochilus hexastichus
(b) Gangaichthys indonepalicus
(c) Tor putitora
(d) Labeo rohita
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). In the paper, N. hexastichus is placed in the comparison as the closest relative species.
October 2026
Limnonectes motijheel: Namdapha's Mud-Nest-Building Fanged Frog
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1. With reference to Limnonectes motijheel, consider the following statements:
1. Its description is from the Namdapha Tiger Reserve.
2. The mitochondrial 16S rRNA gene was used in its identification.
3. It has been named after the Namdapha river.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The name is after a wetland called Motijheel.
2. What is the basis of this new species' name "motijheel"?
(a) A high mountain pass
(b) A small wetland inside the protected area
(c) A researcher's surname
(d) A local tribe
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). Mongabay India's report states exactly this.
3. According to the research paper's abstract, which behaviour of this species has been described as special?
(a) Building a mud nest under dry leaves
(b) Building a hanging nest on a tree branch
(c) Building a floating foam nest on the water's surface
(d) Digging a long burrow in sand
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The abstract describes the special behaviour of building a mud nest under leaves.
October 2026
Dillenia nagalim: A New Plant Species from Manipur
Read the full article →October 2026
AUSTRAHIND 2026: The Fifth Edition of the India-Australia Exercise
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to AUSTRAHIND 2026:
Statement 1: It is a joint exercise of the armies of India and Australia.
Statement 2: Its fifth edition is being held in Thiruvananthapuram.
Statement 3: New Zealand is the third main participating force in it.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. New Zealand's contingent is present for the first time as an observer.
Question 2. What is the theme of AUSTRAHIND 2026 centred on?
(a) Cyber security and space warfare
(b) Joint sub-conventional operations in island and coastal environment
(c) Only mountain warfare training
(d) Only joint patrols by naval fleets
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to PIB, the theme is joint sub-conventional operations in island and coastal environment.
Question 3. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Fourth edition: Thiruvananthapuram, 2026
(b) Fifth edition: 19 October to 1 November 2026
(c) Indian contingent: 13 Brigade
(d) Australian contingent: Garhwal Rifles
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). The fourth edition was held in Perth from 13 to 26 October 2025. The Garhwal Rifles is the Indian contingent and the 13 Brigade is the Australian contingent.
October 2026
Uniform Consent Guidelines: CTE, CTO and the 2026 Amendments
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Under the amended guidelines, a CTO is valid until cancelled once granted.
Statement 2: This means that inspections will no longer take place.
Statement 3: For red-category industries, the consent process period has been reduced from 120 days to 90 days.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. According to PIB, periodic inspections and provisions for cancellation on violation continue.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: For micro and small units of notified industrial areas, CTE will be deemed on a self-certified application.
Statement 2: Besides SPCB officers, registered environmental auditors can also conduct site visits.
Statement 3: States can fix a lump-sum CTO fee of 5 to 25 years.Which of the statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements are correct as per the PIB account.
Question 3. Which conclusion is appropriate?
(a) This amendment is not of the Acts, but of the Uniform Consent Guidelines issued under the Acts
(b) A CTO is valid until cancelled, so it cannot be cancelled in any situation
(c) Consent and environmental clearance (EC) are the same process
(d) Rigid minimum-distance criteria have been made stricter
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to PIB, the guidelines have been amended. Provisions for cancellation remain, and a site-specific assessment has replaced rigid minimum-distance criteria.
October 2026
CDG-2: From a Faint Galaxy to Dark Matter
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Question 1. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A dense group of globular star clusters and the faint light around them played a role in the identification of CDG-2.
Statement 2: Four globular star clusters mean that the system has only four stars.
Statement 3: The inference of dark-matter dominance can depend on model assumptions.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. The first and third statements are correct. The second is wrong: each star cluster is a group of many stars; the number of clusters cannot be taken as the total number of stars.
Question 2. Identify the correct pair:
Which pair is correct?
(a) Subaru – a ground-based telescope located in Hawaii
(b) Euclid – a galaxy located in Perseus
(c) Globular cluster – necessarily a single star
(d) Dark matter – another name for the cause of the universe's accelerated expansion
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Subaru is ground-based. Euclid is a space observatory. A star cluster is a group of many stars. The name tied to accelerated expansion is dark energy, not dark matter.
Question 3. Which conclusion is appropriate?
From the study of CDG-2's faint starlight and star clusters:
(a) a direct picture of a dark matter particle has been obtained
(b) proof has been found that the galaxy does not have a single star
(c) the study of an extremely faint galaxy and its possible dark-matter dominance is strengthened
(d) all estimated mass-percentages have been measured directly without any assumption
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). The observations are strong evidence of a galaxy and the basis for further model-based study. They are not a direct picture of a particle, the complete absence of stars, or assumption-free mass measurement.
October 2026
Deep Ocean Mission: CMLRE, BhavSagar and the Six Components
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Question 1. Consider the statements:
1. The nodal ministry of the Deep Ocean Mission is the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2. According to PIB, the CCEA approved it in 2021 for 5 years at an estimated cost of ₹4,077 crore.
3. CMLRE is located in Kochi and is an institution connected with MoES.How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (c) All three. All three statements are correct according to PIB 2021 and the official website of CMLRE.
Question 2. Consider the correct pairs:
1. Ocean climate advisory services: climate projections from seasonal to decadal periods
2. Advanced marine station for ocean biology: design of an OTEC-based desalination plant
3. Deep ocean survey: exploration of hydrothermal sulphide sites on mid-ocean ridgesHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Pairs 1 and 3 are correct. OTEC-based desalination is in the "energy and fresh water from the ocean" component, not in the advanced marine station.
Question 3. Which conclusion is appropriate?
(a) The Deep Ocean Mission was approved on 2 April 2026
(b) CMLRE is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) Human exploration up to 6,000 metres has been completed
(d) The PIB account of the parliamentary reply describes activities; the mission's original approval and components should be checked from the 2021 PIB release
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). The approval is of 2021, CMLRE is connected with MoES, and about 6,000 metres PIB described preparation, not a completed expedition.
October 2026
Trade Margin Cap on Cancer Drugs: 30 Percent and the Question of Access
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Question 1. Consider the following pairs:
1. DPCO, 2013 Para 19 - the power of price intervention in public interest in extraordinary circumstances.
2. DPCO, 2013 Para 20 - monitoring of increases in the MRP of non-scheduled formulations.
3. Trade Margin Rationalisation (TMR) - a direct cap on the manufacturer's cost of production.How many of the above pairs are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) NoneSee Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Pair 3 is wrong: TMR caps not the manufacturer's cost but the trade margin of the distribution and retail chain; the government release mentions the protection of the manufacturer's legitimate revenue.
Question 2. With reference to the government release on the NPPA initiative of October 2026, consider the following statements:
1. It applies to 137 scheduled anti-cancer drugs.
2. The trade margin has been capped at 30% of MRP.
3. The revised prices will be effective from 9 November 2026.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is wrong: the government release is about 137 non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the government release.
Question 3. With reference to the trade-margin rationalisation effort of 2019, consider the following statements:
1. It included 42 non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs.
2. After it, the MRP of 526 brands fell by up to 90%.
3. It was done under Para 20.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong: the 2019 TMR was done under the extraordinary power of Para 19, not under Para 20.
Question 4. What is the main purpose of trade-margin rationalisation on anti-cancer drugs?
(a) To include all cancer drugs in the National List of Essential Medicines
(b) To make treatment more affordable and accessible by reducing the excessive margin in the distribution and retail chain
(c) To ban the import of cancer drugs
(d) To free manufacturers from cancer-drug productionSee Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the government release, the purpose is to make cancer treatment more affordable and accessible by removing the excessive trade margin; it is not related to NLEM inclusion, an import ban or ending production.
October 2026
AI in Health: From Screening to Accountability
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Question 1. Consider the following pairs:
Pair 1: SAHI - the national guiding framework for health AI.
Pair 2: BODH - a platform for testing and benchmarking health AI models.
Pair 3: ABDM sandbox - a mechanism to automatically give a clinical licence to all connected AI products.How many of the above pairs are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) NoneSee answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Pair 3 is wrong: the sandbox gives the facility of integration; it is not automatic proof of regulatory approval or clinical effectiveness.
Question 2. With reference to medical device software, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Only software fitted in hardware can come within the scope.
Statement 2: Depending on intended use, standalone software can also be a medical device.
Statement 3: When clinical image analysis is added to a system that only keeps data, its assessment can change.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Only 2 and 3. Statement 1 is wrong because standalone clinical software can also be covered. Statement 2 states the test of intended use. Statement 3 is correct because an additional clinical function is different from ordinary storage.
Question 3. According to CDSCO's 2026 Medical Device Software guidance:
Statement 1: A fifth risk class comes into being automatically for AI.
Statement 2: The guidance explains practice under the existing Medical Device Rules.
Statement 3: Monitoring of drift and wrong results after entering the market is relevant.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All threeSee answer and reason
Answer: (c) Only 2 and 3. Statement 1 is wrong: there are four risk classes from A to D. Statement 2 is correct: the document itself asks readers not to treat it as new regulatory control. Statement 3 is correct: post-market monitoring is part of the lifecycle.
Question 4. What is the most appropriate meaning of clinical performance in health AI?
(a) The software file's size being small
(b) Giving clinically relevant results in the intended use and patient group
(c) Becoming valid for all populations the moment a high score is obtained on any international data
(d) Getting regulatory approval on being connected to the internetSee answer and reason
Answer: (b). Clinical performance is tied to the situation of use and the patient group. Technical testing, network integration, or another context's score are not automatic substitutes for it.
October 2026
AI in Health: From Screening to Accountability
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Question 1. Consider the following pairs:
Pair 1: SAHI - the national guiding framework for health AI.
Pair 2: BODH - a platform for testing and benchmarking health AI models.
Pair 3: ABDM sandbox - a mechanism to automatically give a clinical licence to all connected AI products.How many of the above pairs are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) NoneSee answer and reason
Answer: (b) Only two. Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. Pair 3 is wrong: the sandbox gives the facility of integration; it is not automatic proof of regulatory approval or clinical effectiveness.
Question 2. With reference to medical device software, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Only software fitted in hardware can come within the scope.
Statement 2: Depending on intended use, standalone software can also be a medical device.
Statement 3: When clinical image analysis is added to a system that only keeps data, its assessment can change.Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3See answer and reason
Answer: (c) Only 2 and 3. Statement 1 is wrong because standalone clinical software can also be covered. Statement 2 states the test of intended use. Statement 3 is correct because an additional clinical function is different from ordinary storage.
Question 3. According to CDSCO's 2026 Medical Device Software guidance:
Statement 1: A fifth risk class comes into being automatically for AI.
Statement 2: The guidance explains practice under the existing Medical Device Rules.
Statement 3: Monitoring of drift and wrong results after entering the market is relevant.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All threeSee answer and reason
Answer: (c) Only 2 and 3. Statement 1 is wrong: there are four risk classes from A to D. Statement 2 is correct: the document itself asks readers not to treat it as new regulatory control. Statement 3 is correct: post-market monitoring is part of the lifecycle.
Question 4. What is the most appropriate meaning of clinical performance in health AI?
(a) The software file's size being small
(b) Giving clinically relevant results in the intended use and patient group
(c) Becoming valid for all populations the moment a high score is obtained on any international data
(d) Getting regulatory approval on being connected to the internetSee answer and reason
Answer: (b). Clinical performance is tied to the situation of use and the patient group. Technical testing, network integration, or another context's score are not automatic substitutes for it.
October 2026
AGOA Crisis and South Africa
Read the full article →October 2026
Agrivoltaics: Power Above the Farm, Crop Below - the Proposed Central Scheme
Read the full article →October 2026
India-UAE Relations: The Mumbai Talks and the Framework of a Multi-layered Partnership
Read the full article →October 2026
Yes Bank AT-1 Bonds: Why the Supreme Court Quashed the Write-Down
Read the full article →October 2026
Falling Water Storage in Reservoirs: The Basin-wise Position and Measures
Read the full article →October 2026
France's Fiscal Consolidation: The 2027 Budget Bill, a Hung Assembly, and the Pressure on Public Services
Read the full article →October 2026
Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): Structure and Components
Read the full article →October 2026
Osteoporosis and Fragility Fractures
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Question 1. Which is the correct WHO-based definition of osteoporosis?
(a) Low bone density and erosion of bone micro-structure, which increases bone fragility
(b) An infectious disease of the joints
(c) Only a weakness of the muscles
(d) An international cancer of the bone marrow
View answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to the WHO fact sheet, osteoporosis is a condition of low bone density and erosion of micro-structure that makes bones fragile.
Question 2. Which trauma is included in the definition of a fragility fracture?
(a) Only a high-energy trauma from a vehicle accident
(b) Only a sports injury
(c) Low-energy trauma - falling from standing height or less
(d) Only lifting a heavy weight
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). According to WHO, a fragility fracture is one caused by low-energy trauma (a fall from standing height or less); it can occur without osteoporosis too.
Question 3. Which is a non-modifiable risk factor?
(a) Smoking
(b) Advancing age, female sex and menopause
(c) Physical inactivity
(d) Use of glucocorticoid medicines
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). According to WHO, age, female sex, menopause and a family history of fracture are non-modifiable factors; smoking, inactivity and glucocorticoids are modifiable.
October 2026
Coconut Bud Rot: Pathogen, Symptoms and Identification
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Question 1. What is the pathogen of coconut bud rot?
(a) Rhizoctonia (a fungus)
(b) An insect - the rhinoceros beetle
(c) Phytophthora palmivora - a fungus-like pathogen of the water mold class
(d) A bacterium - Xanthomonas
See the answer and reason
Answer: (c). According to the ICAR-CCARI/TNAU guides, the pathogen is Phytophthora palmivora; the PCA's official technical guide (TechnoGuide No. 06-2022) calls it a "water mold" - not an insect or a bacterium.
Question 2. Which statement is correct about the initial symptoms of bud rot?
(a) Yellowing-wilting of one or two new leaves; spots on the spindle and its pulling out easily
(b) Oozing of red gum from an old trunk
(c) Roots drying at once without leaf symptoms
(d) Fruits turning sweet
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). According to ICAR-CCARI, yellowing of new leaves, brown/black spots on the spindle leaves and the infected spindle pulling out easily are the initial identification.
Question 3. Which conditions favour disease development?
(a) A dry and cold climate
(b) Only desert soil
(c) Only mountain altitude
(d) Heavy rainfall, high humidity and wounds from tappers/rhinoceros beetles
See the answer and reason
Answer: (d). According to ICAR-CCARI, heavy rainfall, high humidity and wounds from tappers and rhinoceros beetles favour the disease; young palms of 5-20 years are more severely affected.
October 2026
Glo Lake: Arunachal Pradesh's First Ramsar Site
Read the full article →October 2026
Gangaichthys indonepalicus: The First Underground Fish of the Ganga Basin
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Question 1. Which is the correct statement regarding the significance of Gangaichthys indonepalicus?
(a) It is the first cave fish found in the caves of Meghalaya
(b) Described in ZooKeys (11 August 2026), it is the first stygobitic (underground-water) fish recorded from the Ganga basin – both a new genus and a new species
(c) It is a marine eel found in the Bay of Bengal
(d) It is an already known fish that has been rediscovered
View Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the ZooKeys descriptive paper and the Pensoft press release (17 August 2026), it is the first stygobitic fish of the Indo-Gangetic plain/Ganga basin; it is not marine, but a species of underground water (alluvial aquifer).
Question 2. Which is the correct statement regarding the naming of this fish?
(a) The genus name was given after a scientist
(b) The species name is after the village where the borewell was
(c) The name points to the TikTok platform
(d) The genus name Gangaichthys means "fish of the Ganga" and the species name indonepalicus reflects its India-Nepal border distribution
View Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). According to Pensoft/EurekAlert (17 August 2026), Gangaichthys = "fish of the Ganga"; indonepalicus was chosen because it was found in the India-Nepal border region.
Question 3. Which are the adaptations recorded in this fish for underground life?
(a) Bright colour and large eyes
(b) Reduced eyes covered by skin, an unpigmented translucent body and an apparent absence of ribs
(c) A bioluminescent surface
(d) Well-developed wing-like pectoral fins
View Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the Pensoft press release, the adaptations to complete darkness include reduced eyes covered by skin, an unpigmented translucent body and an apparent absence of ribs.
October 2026
First Direct Export of GI-Certified Salem Sago
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Question 1. Which statement is correct about the Salem sago export event of February 2026?
(a) It was the first foreign export of Salem sago in history
(b) It was only an announcement; the consignment has not yet left
(c) It was the first consignment sent directly by the GI Authorised User SAGOSERVE after the GI tag (March 2023), and it went to Canada
(d) The export was to Iran
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). According to the PIB (19 February 2026), commercial exports had been happening earlier too; the special feature is that the GI Authorised User society itself exported directly.
Question 2. Under which ministry does APEDA work?
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(c) Ministry of Food Processing
(d) Ministry of Cooperation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). According to the PIB release, APEDA is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Question 3. Choose the correct statement about SAGOSERVE:
(a) It is a department of the Tamil Nadu government
(b) It is a Salem-based cooperative society with 334 registered member-producers, which obtained GI registration in March 2023
(c) It is a private export company
(d) It is related to rice exports
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). According to the PIB, SAGOSERVE is a service-based industrial cooperative society that obtained the GI registration of Salem sago in March 2023; it has 334 registered member-producers.
October 2026
First Direct Export of GI-Certified Salem Sago
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Question 1. Which statement is correct about the Salem sago export event of February 2026?
(a) It was the first foreign export of Salem sago in history
(b) It was only an announcement; the consignment has not yet left
(c) It was the first consignment sent directly by the GI Authorised User SAGOSERVE after the GI tag (March 2023), and it went to Canada
(d) The export was to Iran
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). According to the PIB (19 February 2026), commercial exports had been happening earlier too; the special feature is that the GI Authorised User society itself exported directly.
Question 2. Under which ministry does APEDA work?
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(b) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(c) Ministry of Food Processing
(d) Ministry of Cooperation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). According to the PIB release, APEDA is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Question 3. Choose the correct statement about SAGOSERVE:
(a) It is a department of the Tamil Nadu government
(b) It is a Salem-based cooperative society with 334 registered member-producers, which obtained GI registration in March 2023
(c) It is a private export company
(d) It is related to rice exports
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). According to the PIB, SAGOSERVE is a service-based industrial cooperative society that obtained the GI registration of Salem sago in March 2023; it has 334 registered member-producers.
October 2026
PRAMAAN: First Certificates under the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme
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Question 1. Who received the first PRAMAAN certificates distributed on 29 September 2026?
(a) The Andhra Pradesh Forest Development Corporation (33,000 hectares of plantations) and a farmer linked to the Odisha Bamboo Development Agency
(b) The Kerala Forest Corporation and a tea garden of Assam
(c) The Madhya Pradesh Forest Department and an FPO of Gujarat
(d) Only IIFM Bhopal
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a). According to PIB (29 September 2026), the first certificates went to APFDC (33,000 hectares) and to farmer Govind Mahapatra (linked to OBDA).
Question 2. Choose the correct statement regarding the operation and accreditation of IFWCS/PRAMAAN:
(a) The operating agency is FSI and the audit is based on self-declaration
(b) The operating agency is WWF-India
(c) The operating agency is IIFM Bhopal; certification is based on the independent audit of bodies accredited by NABCB (QCI), with NWPC 2023 as the basis
(d) Certification is issued only by the Union Ministry itself
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). According to PIB, IIFM Bhopal is the operating agency and the basic principle of certification is the independent audit of bodies accredited by NABCB (QCI), against the standards of NWPC 2023.
Question 3. When was the IFWCS started?
(a) In December 2020
(b) In January 2025
(c) In September 2026
(d) In December 2023
View Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d). According to PIB, the Ministry started the IFWCS in December 2023; September 2026 is the date of the first certificates, not of the launch of the scheme.
October 2026
"Wild 'Sikkim Banana': A Genetic Repository of Climate Resilience"
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Question 1. Which is the correct statement about Musa sikkimensis?
(a) It is a kind of hybrid banana variety developed recently
(b) It is mainly a native species of the Western Ghats
(c) It is a major variety widely cultivated as a food fruit
(d) It is the eastern Himalaya's wild seeded banana species, a genetic repository of disease-resistance and climate-adaptation traits
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). Per The Hindu (3 March 2026), Musa sikkimensis is the eastern Himalaya's wild seeded species, not widely cultivated as a food fruit, but a gene repository of climate-tolerant traits.
Question 2. Which institution and journal is this study linked to?
(a) IARI and the Indian Journal of Genetics
(b) Nagaland University (horticulture department) and the journal "Flora and Fauna"
(c) IIT Kharagpur and Nature
(d) Sikkim University and Current Science
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Per The Hindu's report, the study is by researchers of Nagaland University's horticulture department and was published in the "Flora and Fauna" journal.
Question 3. Choose the correct statement about the 'Banana Biodiversity Corridor':
(a) It is a tourism route
(b) It is only a laboratory-based ex situ collection
(c) It is Nagaland University's living field gene bank that joins both in situ and ex situ conservation
(d) It is a scheme of the Union Ministry of Agriculture
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). Per the report, the corridor coordinates in situ and ex situ conservation as a living field gene bank and supports climate-resilient breeding research.
October 2026
Vasundhara Tal: The First Early Warning System for a Glacial Lake
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Question 1. In what sense is the Vasundhara Tal system the state's first?
(a) The state's first glacial-lake early warning system
(b) The state's first flood-control dam
(c) The first Himalayan hydroelectric plant
(d) The first earthquake-monitoring laboratory
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). IE: the state's first EWS for any glacial lake; installation from 29 September, first phase complete on 14 October.
Question 2. Choose the correct statement about the monitoring system:
1. Data communication will use Iridium satellite technology.
2. Normally, readings will go to the dashboard every two hours.
3. The system depends only on the mobile network.
(a) Only 2 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). USDMA: Iridium + solar/battery; Statement 3 is wrong - the mobile network is not available there.
Question 3. Per the NDMA's risk classification, which pair is correct?
(a) 5 high-risk lakes; 13 Category-A
(b) 344 high-risk lakes; all in Chamoli
(c) 13 high-risk lakes; 5 Category-A; Vasundhara Tal included
(d) No classification
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). IE: of the NDMA's 13 high-risk lakes, five are Category-A; 344 is the NRSC's count (2023) of total lakes.
October 2026
Samadhan Didi: The AI Chatbot That Registers Complaints by Voice
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Question 1. Samadhan Didi is an AI chatbot for which purpose?
(a) Registering complaints against government departments
(b) Informing taxpayers about refunds
(c) Railway reservation help
(d) Adding names to the voter list
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). DARPG+Bhashini's CPGRAMS-integrated voice chatbot; it registers complaints and takes them to the GRO.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
1. It has been developed by DARPG with the cooperation of Bhashini.
2. It does voice-based registration in 22 scheduled languages.
3. The complainant has to select the department and category beforehand.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). Statement 3 is wrong - knowing the department/category is not necessary; the AI identifies it itself.
Question 3. With reference to CPGRAMS, which is the correct pair as per PIB (5 August 2026)?
(a) Maximum period 45 days; average 30 days
(b) Maximum disposal period 21 days; average 13 days in 2026
(c) Maximum period 7 days; average 5 days
(d) No time limit fixed
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The period came down from 30 to 21 days under the August 2024 guidelines; central ministries' average is 13 days.
October 2026
"Gajapati Empire: Medieval Inscription Surfaces in Guntur"
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Question 1. Which place and which empire is the Guntur inscription related to?
(a) A pillar of the Lakshmi Narasimha Swamy temple; the Gajapatis
(b) Brihadeshwara temple; the Cholas
(c) Virupaksha temple; Vijayanagara
(d) Jagannath temple; the Pala dynasty
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Hans India: the Lakshmi Narasimha temple of Ramachandrapura Agraharam; the era of Gajapati ruler Purushottama Deva.
Question 2. Who were the founder of the Suryavamsi Gajapati dynasty and its capital?
(a) Purushottama Deva; Puri
(b) Kapilendra Deva; Cuttack
(c) Prataparudra Deva; Konark
(d) Bhanu Deva IV; Kalinganagar
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). History of Odisha: Kapilendra Deva (c. 1435-1467), founder; capital Kataka-pattana (Cuttack).
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The Gajapati dynasty was the successor of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
Statement 2: Chaitanya came to Odisha in the era of Prataparudra Deva.
Statement 3: The Guntur inscription mentions Kumarguru Mahapatra.
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). All three statements are consistent with the sources.
October 2026
Cyclosporiasis: The Cyclospora Parasite, Its Spread and the July 2026 US Outbreak
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Question 1. What is the causative agent of cyclosporiasis?
(a) The Influenza virus
(b) The Cyclospora parasite
(c) The Shigella bacterium
(d) Mosquito venom
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). The CDC describes it as a disease caused by a microscopic parasite called Cyclospora.
Question 2. Assertion (A): direct person-to-person spread of Cyclospora is unlikely.
Reason (R): after coming out with faeces, the parasite takes about 1-2 weeks to become infectious.
Choose the correct option.
(a) A wrong, R correct
(b) A correct, R wrong
(c) Both correct, R not the explanation
(d) Both correct and R is the correct explanation of A
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). The CDC cites the period of maturing in the environment as the reason for the low likelihood of direct spread.
Question 3. According to the CDC's final update of 11 September 2026, what was the status of the July outbreak?
(a) The outbreak was declared over
(b) It had started only in India
(c) No investigation had taken place so far
(d) It was named malaria
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The final update said the outbreak was over; the July reference is historical.
October 2026
Dark Patterns: CCPA Guidelines and Action
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Question 1. In which year were the guidelines for the regulation of dark patterns issued?
(a) 2019
(b) 2020
(c) 2023
(d) 2026
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). PIB: the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns were issued in 2023.
Question 2. Consider the following:
1. Basket Sneaking
2. Confirm Shaming
3. Forced Action
How many of the above are recognised types of dark patterns?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). PIB: all three are types listed in the guidelines.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: This action of the CCPA was taken under the Consumer Protection Act 2019.
Statement-II: The CCPA imposed a total fine of Rs 6 lakh on two companies for violating dark patterns.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(b) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is correct - Rs 5 lakh + Rs 1 lakh = Rs 6 lakh in total.
October 2026
C-295: Maiden Flight of the First "Make in India" Transport Aircraft (Prelims Practice)
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Question 1. When did the IAF statement on the completion of the maiden flight of the first India-made C-295 come, and which place is named in the report?
(a) 10 June 2026, Vadodara
(b) 11 June 2026, Bengaluru
(c) 5 May 2026, Nashik
(d) 26 January 2026, New Delhi
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a). The Hindu: the IAF gave the information on 10 June that the maiden flight had been completed; the picture description names Vadodara. The report was published on 11 June.
Question 2. Consider the following pairs about the C-295 programme:
Pair 1: Total aircraft - 56
Pair 2: Cost - about ₹21,935 crore
Pair 3: Use of the aircraft - military transport
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See answer and explanation
Answer: (c). Report: all three pairs are correct.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The first India-made C-295 completed its maiden test flight.
Statement 2: With the maiden flight, the aircraft was formally inducted into the IAF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
See answer and explanation
Answer: (a). 1 is in the report; 2 is wrong - a maiden flight is a test stage; no induction announcement is in the report.
October 2026
Kavach: The Expansion of India's Indigenous Automatic Train Protection System
Read the full article →October 2026
Lion-Tailed Macaque: A Canopy-Dependent Life and the Risk of Human Habitats
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Question 1. What is the natural habitat identity of the lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus)?
(a) Endemic to the dry scrub of the Eastern Ghats
(b) An arboreal species of the rainforests of the southern Western Ghats
(c) A species of Himalayan grasslands
(d) A species of the Sundarbans delta
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). It is an endemic, arboreal and diurnal species of the rainforests of the southern Western Ghats; the study found the importance of canopy continuity.
Question 2. What is the central finding of the Anamalai study (The Hindu report)?
(a) The species is dying out in protected forests
(b) In unprotected areas the number is rising with food availability, but this can become a long-term risk
(c) The species has now been declared fully safe
(d) All groups have moved into plantations
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). According to the report, growth is happening in unprotected areas from human-linked food, but the researchers treat it not as a victory but as a long-term threat.
Question 3. Assertion (A): the rising number of lion-tailed macaques in unprotected areas is not proof of long-term safety.
Reason (R): dependence on human-linked food links them to risks such as road accidents and electrocution.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct, R is wrong
(d) A is wrong, R is correct
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The Hindu report: the growth is from human-linked food and that same dependence raises the road-electrocution-tourism-felling risk - R is the explanation of A.
October 2026
Mud Volcano: A Mound of Pressure, Gas and Mud
Read the full article →October 2026
Assisted Reproductive Technology: the Act of 2021 and the Regulations of 2023
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Question 1. Which statement about the registration of an ART clinic is correct?
(a) Registration stays valid for life
(b) Registration for two years, renewal for ten years
(c) Registration is valid for five years; renewal is also for five years
(d) Registration is necessary only for banks, not for clinics
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (c). Registration is mandatory for both the clinic and the bank; both the period and the renewal are of five years each.
Question 2. What is the correct set of rules for egg donation?
(a) Donor aged 23-35 years; once in a lifetime; a maximum of seven eggs
(b) Donor aged 21-55 years; several donations possible
(c) Donor aged 18-40 years; a maximum of two eggs
(d) Donor aged 23-35 years; twice in a lifetime
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (a). An egg donor's age is 23-35 years, donation is once in a lifetime and the limit is a maximum of seven eggs retrieved.
Question 3. What is the correct limit on embryo transfer in the 2023 Regulations?
(a) Up to four embryos in one cycle
(b) Generally 1-2 embryos; three in specified special circumstances; never more than three
(c) Only one embryo, without exception
(d) All the embryos that are formed
See the answer and the reason
Answer: (b). In keeping with the woman's medical condition, the Regulations keep 1-2 embryos as the norm and limit it to three in the specified circumstances.
October 2026
Indian Seafarers: Risk Areas, Advisories and the Safety Mechanism
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Question 1. What is the correct description of the figures of the 15 October 2026 report?
(a) 10 dead, all on Indian-flagged ships
(b) 16 dead, 33 injured, 3 missing; 15 of the 16 on foreign-flagged ships
(c) 16 dead, all in the Strait of Hormuz
(d) 33 dead and 16 injured
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). The figures are as of the time of the report; most of the dead were on foreign-flagged ships because most Indian seafarers work there.
Question 2. With reference to Circular 47 of 2026, which statement is correct?
(a) It places a complete ban on all Indian seafarers going to the Gulf region
(b) It applies only to Indian-flagged ships
(c) It makes intimation to the DG Communication Centre and the individual consent of every Indian seafarer necessary before a Hormuz transit
(d) It lays down only a condition of the ship's insurance certificate
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). The circular imposes no ban; it lays down the conditions of transit intimation to the DG Communication Centre and the individual consent of every Indian seafarer.
Question 3. In what context is the majority of Indian seafarer casualties correctly placed?
(a) India is the world's largest supplier of seafarers
(b) India is the second-largest supplier of seafarers after the Philippines and more than 9 in 10 Indian seafarers are on foreign-flagged ships
(c) Indian seafarers work only on Indian-flagged ships
(d) Indian seafarers do not work in conflict zones
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). Being the second-largest supplier and most being employed on foreign flags together explain the pattern of casualties.
October 2026
OCI Card: Facilities, Special Permission and Limitations
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Question 1. Which statement about the OCI card is correct?
(a) OCI is a form of dual citizenship
(b) An OCI holder is an eligible foreign citizen of Indian origin; this status does not confer Indian citizenship
(c) On getting OCI, an ordinary Indian passport is obtained
(d) OCI remains valid for only five years
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). Despite the name, OCI is not citizenship; it is a status available under Section 7A to eligible foreign citizens.
Question 2. Which statement about the limitations of Section 7B(2) is correct?
(a) An OCI holder can vote but cannot contest elections
(b) Only voting in foreign elections is prohibited
(c) Voting, membership of Parliament/legislatures and constitutional offices are prohibited; purchase of agricultural land, farmhouses and plantations is also prohibited
(d) Buying agricultural land is permitted; only government jobs are prohibited
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). There is a legal limit on all three: political rights, constitutional offices and purchase of agricultural property.
Question 3. For which activities is special permission necessary for an OCI cardholder?
(a) Travelling on a domestic flight
(b) Visiting a national monument
(c) Taking an all-India examination such as NEET
(d) Journalistic activity, employment in a foreign mission and travel to protected areas
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). Even with a lifelong visa, the condition of special permission remains for some activities and areas.
October 2026
Election Commissioners' Immunity: The Debate on Section 16
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Question 1. What is the correct description of Section 16 of the Act of 2023?
(a) Limited protection over acts only during the term of office
(b) A bar on courts entertaining or continuing civil or criminal proceedings over acts or words in the discharge of official duty by a current or former CEC/EC
(c) A general exemption over all acts of private life
(d) A bar only on civil proceedings, not criminal
See answer and reason
Answer: (b). The section covers both current and former office holders, over official acts, from both civil and criminal proceedings.
Question 2. Which statement is correct about the judicial development of 13 October 2026?
(a) The Supreme Court declared Section 16 unconstitutional
(b) An immediate stay was placed on the Act
(c) The Supreme Court sought a response from the Centre and the Election Commission on ADR's petition; notice is not a declaration of unconstitutionality
(d) The petition was dismissed at the preliminary hearing itself
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). The issue of notice is seeking a response from the parties; the decision on the case's merits will come later.
Question 3. Which statement is correct about Article 324?
(a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections are vested in the Election Commission
(b) The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Justice
(c) The Election Commission works under the Law Ministry
(d) Other Commissioners can be removed by the President at his discretion
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Article 324 gives the Election Commission the superintendence, direction and control of elections.
October 2026
Stubble Management: In-Situ, Ex-Situ and Monitoring
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Question 1. According to CAQM's release of 5 October 2026, what is the correct description of the flying-squad deployment?
(a) Only in 10 districts of Punjab, the whole year
(b) 34 districts: Punjab 18 and Haryana 16; period 1 October to 30 November 2026
(c) Only in Haryana's 16 districts, until December
(d) In all districts of both states, without a time limit
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). The deployment is in 34 districts, phased and limited to the paddy harvest season.
Question 2. What is the correct difference between in-situ and ex-situ stubble management?
(a) In both, the residue is burnt in the field
(b) In in-situ, the residue is washed into a river
(c) In-situ is only for wheat and ex-situ only for paddy
(d) In-situ is disposal in the field itself with machines; ex-situ is collecting and using it in energy, feed or industry
See the answer and reason
Answer: (d). In Punjab's plan, the examples of ex-situ use are biomass energy, CBG, boilers, pellets and cattle feed.
Question 3. Which statement is correct regarding the Crop Residue Management scheme and the Super SMS?
(a) 50% subsidy to the individual farmer and 80% to registered groups; Super SMS mandatory on combines
(b) 100% subsidy to all farmers and SMS banned
(c) Subsidy is only on tractor purchase
(d) Super SMS applies only to new combine companies, not farmers
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). The subsidy rates differ in the centrally sponsored scheme and the Super SMS on combines is mandatory from the 2018 order.
October 2026
Mirror Forms and Racemates: Identifying Chirality
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Question 1. What is the correct identification of an enantiomer pair?
(a) Merely having the same molecular formula
(b) Being mirror images and non-superposable on each other
(c) Being made of different elements
(d) One always being toxic and the other always safe
See the answer and reason
Answer: (b). In the IUPAC definition, non-superposability along with the mirror-image relationship is necessary.
Question 2. A 1:1 molar mixture of two enantiomers is known by which name?
(a) Only a pure enantiomer
(b) Any catalyst
(c) A single atom
(d) Racemate
See the answer and reason
Answer: (d). A racemate is an equimolar mixture, not a single mirror-image form.
Question 3. Two enantiomers are in a 70:30 molar ratio. What is the appropriate conclusion?
(a) One form predominates, but the sample is neither a racemate nor fully pure in one form
(b) It is necessarily a 1:1 racemate
(c) It is certainly a safe medicine
(d) The two forms cannot be mirror-related at all
See the answer and reason
Answer: (a). The ratio shows an excess of one form; it says nothing about complete purity or medicinal safety.
October 2026
PFAS: The Group of Substances, the Cancer Hazard and the Real Risk
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Question 1. Which is the correct pair of the IARC's December 2023 evaluation?
(a) PFOA - Group 2B; PFOS - Group 1
(b) Both - Group 3
(c) All PFAS - Group 1
(d) PFOA - Group 1; PFOS - Group 2B
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). There are separate classifications for two different substances; there is no shared finding for the whole PFAS group.
Question 2. What does IARC's carcinogenicity category mainly state?
(a) The strength of evidence that it can cause cancer
(b) A fixed percentage probability of cancer in every person
(c) Equal harm of all substances at every dose
(d) The statutory limit of all chemicals in drinking water
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). This is hazard identification, not a numerical measure of risk for every exposure condition.
Question 3. The level of a PFAS in water falls with a carbon filter. Which conclusion is correct?
(a) That chemical has necessarily been destroyed
(b) Every PFAS has been completely removed in every condition
(c) The chemical can remain in the filter; removing and destroying are different
(d) There is now no need to change the filter
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). In the EPA's description, pollutants can stay caught in the filter and a filter's capacity is limited.
October 2026
Sukhna and Sauj: Wetland Recognition and Wise Use
Read the full article →October 2026
Kufri Jamunia Potato: What the Nutrition Evidence Actually Says
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Question 1. Raising a crop's nutritional quality through plant breeding and adding nutrients during processing are, respectively, what?
(a) Food fortification and biofortification
(b) Biofortification and food fortification
(c) Both only food fortification
(d) Both only biofortification
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). The first change is in the crop, the second is in the processing stage.
Question 2. A shortage of essential vitamins and minerals despite sufficient calories is an example of what?
(a) Nutritional deficiency being impossible
(b) Only a lack of colour in food
(c) Hidden hunger
(d) An excess of protein in every situation
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). Even when energy is sufficient, micronutrients can be low.
Question 3. The original research abstract found moderate resistance in the laboratory and susceptibility in the field. What is the appropriate conclusion?
(a) The laboratory result does not prove equal resistance in every field
(b) Freedom from disease in every field is proved
(c) The field result is irrelevant
(d) A cure for all potato diseases is proved
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). A conclusion about disease resistance cannot be separated from the conditions of the test.
October 2026
Gaganyaan: Mated Modules, Sequenced Separation
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Question 1. Which sequence matches ISRO's description?
(a) The CM and SM join after re-entry
(b) The two remain separate before launch and never join
(c) Integrated operation in the orbital phase, then separation before re-entry
(d) The first ground check after the success of a crewed flight
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). The two remain integrated until the orbital phase; they separate before re-entry.
Question 2. The umbilical connection is related to what?
(a) The electrical and fluid services between the CM and the SM
(b) Only the name of the launch site
(c) A sea relief vessel
(d) An independent satellite constellation
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). ISRO has described the joining of electrical and fluid servicing between the two modules.
Question 3. The combination was simulated at VSSC and separation tested. What does this not establish?
(a) The design was examined in a ground test
(b) The shock-tolerance of some sub-systems was checked
(c) The severing of umbilicals was simulated
(d) A crewed Gaganyaan has completed a successful return from orbit
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). A ground test is not proof of a crewed orbital flight having been completed.
October 2026
Khaan Quest: Multilateral Peace-Support Training
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Question 1. Consider the following statements with reference to Khaan Quest:
1. Its present form is multilateral.
2. The 2026 event was scheduled at the Five Hills Training Area in Mongolia.
3. It began in 2003 as a bilateral exercise between India and Mongolia.Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only. The exercise is held in Mongolia in a multilateral form. The 2003 beginning was between the United States and Mongolia; from 2006 it became multilateral.
Question 2. Consider the following statements about Chapter VII of the UN Charter:
1. Article 41 provides for measures not involving the use of armed force.
2. The mere mention of Chapter VII in a training exercise automatically makes it an actual UN military mission.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only. Article 41 relates to non-military measures. The training purpose of an exercise and the mandate of a real mission are different.
Mains practice: What is the importance of interoperability in a multilateral peace-support exercise? Explain with examples of Khaan Quest's training tasks.
Answer Outline
Explain the meaning of joint planning and procedures of multilateral teams. Give examples of check-posts, patrolling, civilian evacuation and medical/casualty evacuation. In the end, state the difference between training and a real UN mission, and conclude on the importance of preparation and cooperation.
October 2026
Hollongapar: The Link between Arboreal Gibbons and the Forest Canopy
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Question 1. What is the correct location of the Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary?
(a) Jorhat district, Assam
(b) Kutch, Gujarat
(c) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
(d) Leh, Ladakh
View Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The Assam Government's district introduction places it in Jorhat.
Question 2. Which statement is appropriate while reading the habitat of an arboreal creature?
(a) The name of the district alone is enough
(b) Every arboreal creature never comes to the ground
(c) The structure of the forest canopy is also relevant
(d) Trees are only a count, not a structure
View Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). For activities dependent on trees, understanding the structure of the habitat is useful.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
1. The official introduction describes Hollongapar as an evergreen forest.
2. Writing the study month proves a new announcement in July.
Which option is correct?
(a) Both are correct
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Both are incorrect
View Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). The forest type is in the source; the study month is not proof of a new announcement.
October 2026
RIMPAC 2026: Identifying the Multinational Maritime Exercise
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Question 1. What is the proper identification of RIMPAC?
(a) A multinational maritime exercise
(b) Only an India-Kazakhstan land exercise
(c) Only a bilateral exercise of Mongolia
(d) A satellite navigation augmentation system
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). RIMPAC is a multinational exercise of the maritime domain.
Question 2. Which is the correct meaning of "biennial" and "30th edition"?
(a) Twice a year; a compulsory group of 30 countries
(b) Frequency at an interval of two years; serial number of the series
(c) Every 30 years; two member countries
(d) Two days; 30 ships compulsory
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). Frequency, edition and the number of participants are separate things.
Question 3. An Indian ship was in an earlier edition. What is proper about 2026 from this?
(a) The same ship is automatically included in 2026 too
(b) There are the same participants and platforms every year
(c) Do not assume the participation of a specific ship without separate current evidence
(d) Old information confirms every new count
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). For edition-specific participation, the source of that same edition is needed.
October 2026
INS Nipun: The Diving Support Vessel and How It Differs from a Submarine
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Question 1. Which is the correct identity of INS Nipun?
(a) A Nistar-class diving support vessel
(b) A nuclear submarine
(c) Only a weather satellite
(d) A shallow-water anti-submarine warfare craft
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). The official commissioning description calls it a Nistar-class DSV.
Question 2. Consider the following pairs:
1. Hindustan Shipyard - design and construction
2. Mumbai - place of commissioning
3. Nistar - the related vessel class
How many pairs are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). Construction, commissioning and class are different but correctly identified.
Question 3. What conclusion does NOT follow from the capability to assist in submarine rescue?
(a) The vessel is connected with underwater tasks
(b) It can provide specialised support
(c) It is itself necessarily also a submarine
(d) Life-support facilities can be useful
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). The purpose of support and the type of platform are different things.
October 2026
SkyCast: The Shared Role of Several Instruments in Aviation Weather
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Question 1. Consider the following pairs:
1. Radar wind profiler - wind speed and direction
2. Fog aerosol spectrometer - droplets and aerosols
3. Lidar ceilometer - vertical structure of fog
How many pairs are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer and Explanation
Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). All three measurement roles match the official description.
Question 2. Which is the most appropriate purpose of SkyCast?
(a) Physically eliminating fog at the airport
(b) Joining different atmospheric measurements for aviation weather information
(c) Guaranteeing that no flight is cancelled
(d) Only checking passengers' identity
Answer and Explanation
Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). It is an integrated weather observation and information system.
Question 3. In the 29 May release, Jewar was proposed as the next facility. What conclusion follows?
(a) It was certainly operational from that very day
(b) All airports of the whole country had been connected
(c) There is no difference between a future plan and the current status
(d) On the basis of that source, it should not be assumed to be already running
Answer and Explanation
Answer and Reason
Answer: (d). A future plan is not by itself proof of actual operation.
October 2026
Kallakkadal: Swell Waves From Afar and the Coastal Warning
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. In this Kallakkadal event of September 2026, what was officially mentioned?
(a) A Himalayan avalanche
(b) A long-period swell arriving from the southern Indian Ocean
(c) A nuclear test on the coast
(d) An identical earthquake at every coastal location
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (b). INCOIS linked the event to distant swell waves.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
1. A swell can travel far from its region of origin.
2. Local wind alone does not reveal the impact of a distant swell.
3. Every swell event is an earthquake-generated tsunami.
Which statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (d). The causes of a swell and a tsunami do not automatically become one.
Question 3. What is appropriate regarding a local "ALL CLEAR"?
(a) State/district authorities decide it on the basis of local sea and beach conditions
(b) All coasts become equally safe the moment the forecast period ends
(c) An old warning always remains active
(d) Local conditions have no role
See Answer and Reasoning
Answer: (a). The official update stressed local decision-making and real conditions.
October 2026
Magnetar: Neutron Star and X-ray Polarisation
Read the full article →October 2026
Magnetar: Neutron Star and X-ray Polarisation
Read the full article →October 2026
World Meteorological Organization: Weather, Climate and Hydrology
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. Which subjects fall within the WMO's official mandate?
Statement 1: Weather and climate
Statement 2: Operational hydrology
Statement 3: Related geophysical sciences
Choose the correct answer.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (d). All three are included in its official mandate.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The WMO's secretariat is in Geneva.
Statement 2: It cooperates among national meteorological and hydrological services.
Statement 3: It is a body for abolishing all national weather offices.
Which statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Cooperation is not a synonym for abolishing national services.
Question 3. If one day turns very cold, which conclusion is appropriate?
(a) The full nature of the long-term climate is decided from that very day
(b) The weather observation is useful, but climate needs a long-term reference
(c) Hydrology has no connection with weather
(d) National data are not necessary in global cooperation
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b). Daily weather and long-term climate are different timescales.
October 2026
Constanța Port: Where the Sea Meets the River
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. Consider the following pairs:
1. Constanța – Romania
2. Sea area of Constanța – Baltic Sea
3. Link with the Danube – Danube-Black Sea Canal
Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
See answer and reason
Answer: (d). Constanța is on the Black Sea, not on the Baltic Sea.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The goods of a landlocked country can reach the international market through a sea port.
Statement-II: River, canal and other transport links can connect inland regions to a sea port.
Which option is correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(d) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
See answer and reason
Answer: (a). Even without a coast, sea trade is possible through transport links.
Question 3. A port is described as a hub connected with river and sea transport. Which conclusion does not necessarily follow?
(a) River connectivity can be useful in goods transport
(b) The port can serve inland trade regions
(c) The port is situated only at the natural mouth of the same river
(d) A canal can give a link between a river and the sea
See answer and reason
Answer: (c). The link with the river can also be by an artificial canal. That does not prove a location at the natural mouth.
October 2026
Rice Farming and the Climate Balance
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Question 1. Consider the following statements about the May 2026 study on global rice-field emissions:
1. The estimate of 1,090 ± 350 teragrams represents the mass of methane alone.
2. This estimate relates to annual net CO2-equivalent emissions in the 2010s.
3. The largest driver of rising global net emissions was found to be the expansion of rice-growing area.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
View answer and reason
Answer: (c). Statement 1 is wrong. CO2-equivalent is a common scale for the warming effects of different gases, not the weight of methane alone.
Question 2. The study reports a 52 per cent rise in soil CO2 emissions and a 44 per cent rise in CH4 emissions. Which conclusion is most appropriate?
(a) CO2's share of total emissions was 52 per cent and CH4's share 44 per cent
(b) Both numbers are the growth rates of their respective components, not shares of the total
(c) Adding the two gives the exact growth rate of total net emissions
(d) The annual methane quantity of any Indian field can be derived from them
View answer and reason
Answer: (b). Growth rate and share are different measures. Without knowing the base levels of the components and other elements, the sum of these percentages does not state the total change.
Question 3. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The practice of returning straw should not automatically be treated as climate-friendly in every rice-growing region.
Statement-II: Incorporating excessive residue into flooded, low-oxygen soil can increase methane production.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(d) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
View answer and reason
Answer: (a). Along with the nutrient-cycling benefit, the climate impact must also be considered. This does not lead to the conclusion of removing or burning all residue.
October 2026
Ebola and the Public Health Emergency of International Concern
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. With reference to the WHO's determination of 17 May 2026 on Bundibugyo Ebola, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The event was determined to be a PHEIC.
Statement 2: The event was also considered to meet the criteria of a pandemic emergency.
Statement 3: The need for international coordination was one basis of the decision.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (c). Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The WHO had clarified that the event did not meet the criteria of a pandemic emergency.
Question 2. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: On the basis of the 17 May determination, it is improper to say that "there is no approved vaccine for any form of Ebola".
Statement-II: The determination stated the absence of approved specific products with reference to the Bundibugyo virus, while distinguishing it from Ebola-Zaire.
Which of the following is correct with regard to the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct
(d) Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (a). Applying a virus-specific absence to all forms of Ebola is wrong generalisation.
Question 3. Unusual fever-death clusters have been found in a border area. Two confirmed cases linked to the same outbreak have also been found in a neighbouring country, but the real infection count is unknown. What is the most appropriate conclusion from this situation?
(a) Health action should be halted until the full count is known
(b) Even with uncertainty, it is proper to increase surveillance and international coordination
(c) A border closure alone ends the need for testing and contact follow-up
(d) Cases being found in two countries by itself proves a pandemic emergency
See Answer and Reason
Answer: (b). Uncertainty is not a basis for postponing action. Cross-border spread and capacity-related risks increase the need for testing and coordination; the higher emergency category has additional criteria.
October 2026
Avoiding Hormuz Is Not Enough: The Bab el-Mandeb Risk and an Indian Refinery's Purchase Conditions
Read the full article →October 2026
Indigenous Semi-Cryogenic Engine: the PHTA's 175-Tonne Hot Test and What It Means for LVM3
Read the full article →October 2026
Kufri Jamunia: A Purple Potato, Biofortification and the Limits of Its Claims
Read the full article →October 2026
AI and Jobs: What the IMF's Asian Job Postings Reveal
Read the full article →October 2026
Approval for India's Entry into SIOFA: Oceanic Fishery Resources and Responsibility
Read the full article →October 2026
BIMSTEC Delhi Declaration: The Direction of Security and Disaster Cooperation
Read the full article →October 2026
NSTCC: From Trade Data to Better Decisions
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Data Centre Evaluation Framework: Power, Water and Public Interest Alongside Investment
Read the full article →October 2026
SPARK 5.0 and Ayurshodh: A New Push for Research in Ayurveda
Read the full article →October 2026
Sukhna and Soj Lake: India's Ramsar Sites Reach 103
Read the full article →October 2026
Kamchatka: the Connection Among the Earthquake, Subduction and Volcanoes
Read the full article →October 2026
KAUMARACON 2026: Evidence and Standardisation in Child Health
Read the full article →October 2026
INS Samarthak: The Navy's Multipurpose Test Vessel
Read the full article →October 2026
ACME's Japan Deals: Three Figures for Capacity, Contracts and Supply
Read the full article →October 2026
Sarnath's World Heritage Inscription: The Decision and Six Recommendations
Read the full article →October 2026
TribeX: Launch Figures and Targets Ahead
Read the full article →October 2026
Eighth Tranche of Critical Mineral Block Auctions: 20 Blocks, Nine States, and How to Read the Numbers
Read the full article →October 2026
SEBI Board, 19 June 2026: Nine Approvals, Nine Different Status Words
Read the full article →October 2026
VCS-I-ABS: Voluntary Certification on Benefit-Sharing of Biological Resources
Read the full article →October 2026
VCS-I-ABS: Voluntary Certification on Benefit-Sharing of Biological Resources
Read the full article →October 2026
Indonesia and Australia: How to Read an Outcome List
Read the full article →October 2026
Sabarimala Reference: Judgment Reserved on Articles 25 and 26 on 14 May 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Environmental Clearance: A Standing Alternative When State Bodies Lapse
Read the full article →October 2026
Delayed Payments to MSMEs: The Amendment Bill, 2026 and Its Clocks
Read the full article →October 2026
The 13 May 2026 Storm: Weather System, Warnings, Measurement and Damage in the IMD Report
Read the full article →October 2026
5 June 2026: Capital-Flow Measures and the 20 May Swap
Read the full article →October 2026
Election Commissioner Appointment Law: The Order of 23 September 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Delayed Birth-Death Registration: The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Appointments in Aided Madrasas: The Supreme Court's Najma Khatoon Judgment
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India's Space Launch Programme: What the Rajya Sabha Answer Says
Read the full article →October 2026
The Nagpur BRICS Transport Declaration: Which Verb on Which Initiative
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The Nagpur BRICS Transport Declaration: Which Verb on Which Initiative
Read the full article →October 2026
Elderly and Terminally Ill Prisoners: Supreme Court Directions on Premature Release
Read the full article →October 2026
Samagra Shiksha, Kerala: The Uniform-Fund Misuse and What the Answer Does Not Say
Read the full article →October 2026
Health Budget: PM-ABHIM and PMSSY's BE, RE and Actuals, and the GDP Share That Did Not Come in the Answer
Read the full article →October 2026
Health Budget: PM-ABHIM and PMSSY's BE, RE and Actuals, and the GDP Share That Did Not Come in the Answer
Read the full article →October 2026
Crop Insurance in Tamil Nadu: The State Government's Statement and a Five-Year Table
Read the full article →October 2026
NSDF: In Each of Six Years, Usage Printed Higher Than Receipts, but No Opening-Balance Figure Was Given
Read the full article →October 2026
PMAY-U: Read the Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh Figures, but Note Which Figure Belongs to Which Group
Read the full article →October 2026
Defence University: One Answer to Five Questions, Rs 176 Crore of Preliminary Work and What Was Not Printed
Read the full article →October 2026
Kosi-Mechi and Bihar's Irrigation Projects: The Count of Announcement, Appraisal, Release and Spending
Read the full article →October 2026
Fertiliser Testing: The Re-Testing Arrangement and How to Read the Printed Table
Read the full article →October 2026
The Mental Health Survey: How to Read 10.6% and the Tele-MANAS Count
Read the full article →October 2026
MGNREGA and Bengal: How to Read the Difference Between Budget, Sanction and Release
Read the full article →October 2026
MGNREGA and Bengal: How to Read the Difference Between Budget, Sanction and Release
Read the full article →October 2026
Crop Insurance Data: How to Read Applications, Premium and Claims
Read the full article →October 2026
Forest Land Approval and Compensatory Afforestation: How to Read the Figures
Read the full article →October 2026
Railway Recruitment: How to Read the 1,61,889 Figures
Read the full article →October 2026
NABARD's Development Funds: How to Read the Count of Sanctioned, Released and Spent
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PM-ABHIM: How to Read the Count of Critical Care Blocks
Read the full article →October 2026
Cooperation Policy: Committees Formed, What the Count Says
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Cause of Death: What the Certified Count Says
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The Metro Count: Operational, In Progress and Merely Sanctioned
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UP's Power Allocation: MW, MU and Supply Hours Are Three Different Questions
Read the full article →October 2026
Counting the Beneficiaries: The PMMVY and Mission Vatsalya Figures
Read the full article →October 2026
Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) Phase-II: The ODF Plus Ladder and What the Central Share Figures Show
Read the full article →October 2026
Pumped Storage Projects: Capacity, Stages and Dates
Read the full article →October 2026
Atal Bhujal Yojana: What the Lok Sabha Answer Says About Structures, Blocks and Impact
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SVEP: The Count of 4.33 Lakh Enterprises and Its Unit
Read the full article →October 2026
Digital Platforms for Water: Not One Platform, Many Systems
Read the full article →October 2026
Beti Bachao Beti Padhao in Punjab: State Figures, Not District Detail
Read the full article →October 2026
FGD: 75 of 605, and the Meaning of "Compliance"
Read the full article →October 2026
Central Universities: 57 versus 47, and What the Reply Does Not Say
Read the full article →October 2026
PMMVY in Tribal Areas: Payment Figures and Process Improvements
Read the full article →October 2026
Food Processing PLI: Investment, Jobs and Mega Food Parks
Read the full article →October 2026
Anganwadi Workers: Honorarium, State Top-ups and Service Conditions
Read the full article →October 2026
River-Linking Projects: 30 Links and the Challenge of Consent
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Ragging Complaints: What the Numbers Do and Do Not Say
Read the full article →October 2026
Alang-Sosiya: India's Rising Share in Ship Recycling
Read the full article →October 2026
Foodgrain Damage in FCI Godowns: The Answer's Claim, Annexure Figures and Silo Expansion
Read the full article →October 2026
Three Institutions Strengthening the AVGC-XR Ecosystem: WAVES Bazaar, WaveX and IICT
Read the full article →October 2026
Coal Exchange Rules 2026: Framework, Safeguards, Timeline
Read the full article →October 2026
Passport Fees 2026: One '67%' Headline, Nine Different Rises
Read the full article →October 2026
"Fuel Price Formation: Delhi, April-May 2026"
Read the full article →October 2026
Parliamentary Assurances: 25 Pending Under the Ministry of Defence
Read the full article →October 2026
Fake and Sub-Standard Fertilisers: 611 Complaints, 1.69 Lakh Raids
Read the full article →October 2026
CGTMSE: Guarantee Ceiling Doubled and Faster Claim Settlement
Read the full article →October 2026
The Repeal of Obsolete Laws: 1,725 Acts Cleared
Read the full article →October 2026
PMSSY and Tertiary Healthcare: The Chain from AIIMS to District Medical Colleges
Read the full article →October 2026
Wetland Conservation: From the Map to Ecological Management
Read the full article →October 2026
Digitalisation of PACS: Cooperative Capacity Beyond Computers
Read the full article →October 2026
e-Courts: From Digital Files to Accessible Justice
Read the full article →October 2026
River Pollution: A Falling Count and a Separate Picture of Severity
Read the full article →October 2026
Sponge Cities and Urban Floods: What the Lok Sabha Answer Shows
Read the full article →October 2026
Lakhpati Didi: From Training to Durable Income
Read the full article →October 2026
Jal Jeevan Mission: From Complaints to Technical Accountability
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PM e-Vidya: Study via TV and Digital Inclusion
Read the full article →October 2026
Samagra Shiksha: Central-Share Allocation and Released Amount, 2021-22 to 2025-26
Read the full article →October 2026
Fatal Injuries in Factories: 2020 to 2024, State-wise
Read the full article →October 2026
SVAMITVA Scheme: Drone Survey and Property Cards, State-Wise Status
Read the full article →October 2026
Disaster Funds: State-wise Allocation and Released Amounts from 2023-24 to 2025-26
Read the full article →October 2026
Disability and Widow Pension: State-wise Funds Released and Beneficiary Caps
Read the full article →October 2026
Domestic LPG Subsidy: The Picture of Consumers and Government Spending
Read the full article →October 2026
PM USHA: The Difference Between Approval and Release in Higher Education
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MPLADS: State-Wise Status of Works up to 20 July 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Fertilizer Availability: The State-wise Kharif Position Up to 21 July 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
VB-G RAM G: Allocation to States and the Status of the First Instalment as of 16 July 2026
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Udyam Registration: The Answer, Its Four Tables and Their Differences
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PM-RAHAT: Claims, Approvals and Settlements as of 28 July 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Domestic PNG: State-Wise Status of Areas and Connections
Read the full article →October 2026
National Highways: The Allocation Picture from 2023-24 to 2025-26
Read the full article →October 2026
MSME Loan Accounts: The Number Fell, the Outstanding Loan Rose
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MSME Loan Accounts: The Number Fell, the Outstanding Loan Rose
Read the full article →October 2026
Post-Harvest Losses: What Two Government Studies Say
Read the full article →October 2026
Gaganyaan: The Test of Separating the Crew and Service Modules
Read the full article →October 2026
ITIs: The Change in the Number of Institutes from 2014 to 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Children's Online Safety: The Supreme Court's Directions
Read the full article →October 2026
Preventive Action Before Protests: BNSS Sections 163, 170 and 126
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Gwalior's Sheetla Mata Temple Truck Accident: Layered Safety and the Question of Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Kolkata Pandal Stampede: Questions of Crowd-Disaster Management
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Government Schools: the Change in Their Number from 2021-22 to 2025-26
Read the full article →October 2026
Cancer in India: ICMR-NCRP Estimates, 2021 to 2025
Read the full article →October 2026
Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Campaign: 19.71 Lakh Camps
Read the full article →October 2026
Startup India Seed Fund: Approval of Rs 945 Crore
Read the full article →October 2026
PM-JANMAN, Odisha: The Account of the 3,12,654 PVTG Population and Progress
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PM SHRI: 13,092 Schools and the Account of Teachers
Read the full article →October 2026
Soil Health Cards: 26.09 Crore Cards, 8,313 Labs and the Gaps in the Data
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FCI Rice for Ethanol: ESY 2024-25 Allotment and Lifting
Read the full article →October 2026
Jal Shakti Abhiyan, Tamil Nadu: The Structures the State Reported
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eGramSwaraj and AuditOnline: Figures on GPDP Uploads (2,58,725 Panchayats, 2,50,664 GPDPs)
Read the full article →October 2026
OBC Hostels in Central Universities: The Gap Between the Question and the Answer
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PM-AJAY: ₹4,276.62 Crore Released, Reported Utilisation and Adarsh Grams
Read the full article →October 2026
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission: 94.87 Crore ABHA Accounts
Read the full article →October 2026
Poshan Tracker: e-KYC and Face Matching for THR
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Mission Mausam: 50 Radars and a Plan for 86 New Ones
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PMAY-G's New Phase: Targets, Sanctions and Completed Houses
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Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY: Operational in All 36 States/Union Territories
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National Clean Air Programme: The State of PM10 in Cities
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Grants to Rural Local Bodies: The 16th Finance Commission's Increase
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UPI: 24,162 Crore Transactions in 2025-26
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NSAP Pension: The July 2026 Answer and October's New Approval
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Haroli Bulk Drug Park: ₹1,000 Crore Grant, ₹116 Crore Used
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PMAY-U 2.0: 2.13 Lakh More Houses Approved
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Nagpur Airport: From Lease Extension to Handover to GMR
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BRCP Phase III: the Cabinet's Approval and the July 2026 Launch
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Students' Mental Health: The Interim Report of the Supreme Court's National Task Force
Read the full article →October 2026
PLI Schemes: The Government's Figures on Exports and Investment
Read the full article →October 2026
The Lakhanpur Coal-to-Ammonium-Nitrate Project: Foundation Laying and Investment
Read the full article →October 2026
PM-SETU: What the Approval of the Visakhapatnam ITI Cluster Means
Read the full article →October 2026
PM SVANidhi: The State of the Restructured Scheme in May 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
"WTO Fisheries Subsidies Agreement: India's Acceptance and the Original Text"
Read the full article →October 2026
Textile PLI Round Three: 96 Companies and ₹12,822.67 Crore
Read the full article →October 2026
India's First Semi High-Speed Rail: Ahmedabad-Dholera
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Revised Captive Policy for Ports: Key Provisions
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Three Highways, ₹15,949 Crore: The Difference Between BOT and HAM
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Rs 30,000 Crore New Government Commitment in NIIF
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Varanasi's Two Elevated Corridors: Rs 25,446 Crore
Read the full article →October 2026
Vadinar Ship-Repair Facility: Rs 1,570 Crore
Read the full article →October 2026
Two More Semiconductor Units: GaN Micro-LED and OSAT
Read the full article →October 2026
SARTHAK-PDS: An Umbrella Scheme of Rs 25,530 Crore
Read the full article →October 2026
Mission Drishti: The Success of the Launch and the Success of the Mission
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Kisan Sarathi: 2.95 Crore Registered Farmers
Read the full article →October 2026
India-UAE Visit May 2026: SPR MoU, Defence Framework, $5 Billion
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Italy Special Strategic Partnership (May 2026): The Agreements
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NFHS-6 (2023-24): Maternal and Child Health and Nutrition Indicators
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India-Netherlands 'Strategic Partnership' (May 2026): What Was Signed
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Quad Critical Minerals Initiative: The 'Up to $20 Billion' Intent
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National Health Accounts 2022-23: The Share of Government Health Spending
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India-Slovakia Comprehensive Partnership: What Was Signed and What Is Only Intended
Read the full article →October 2026
QR Codes on Medicines: Which Drugs Are in Schedule H2
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NITI Aayog's 11th Governing Council: Appeals to the States
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The Economy in June 2026: Growth, Repo Rate and Deficit
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India-Cyprus: From a "Comprehensive" to a "Strategic" Partnership
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Three Ships Commissioned into the Navy at Kolkata
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India-Oman CEPA in Force: What Exporters Get and What to Watch
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An Advocate's Name on the Banks' Caution List: The Supreme Court's Decision
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Raising Royalty in a Mining Lease: the Supreme Court's Decision
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Life Imprisonment Without Remission: The Supreme Court's July 2026 Decision
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Nipah in Kerala (June 2026): Contact Tracing and the One Health Lesson
Read the full article →October 2026
Rupee Undervalued? REER at 91.26 and the RBI Governor's Remarks
Read the full article →October 2026
Solar Power Curtailment: 8,133 GWh in April-June 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
New SOP for FDI Proposals: Paperless Applications and a Timeline
Read the full article →October 2026
Police Force in Student Protests: The Supreme Court's Interim Order of 28 July 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
The Lawyers' Boycott Resolution and the Accused's Right to Counsel
Read the full article →October 2026
After Agnipath: Reservation in the CAPF for Former Agniveers
Read the full article →October 2026
An Animated Film Amid the Rath Yatra: What the Supreme Court's Order Decided
Read the full article →October 2026
China's Export Ban on Helium and India's Dependence
Read the full article →October 2026
Land and Buildings in Banks' Hands: RBI's SNFA Standard
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576 Individuals Showing an Income of Rs 100 Crore or More: Parliament's Figures
Read the full article →October 2026
Changes in SEBI's Portfolio Manager Regulations
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Crypto-Asset Reporting: CBDT's Guidance Note and CARF
Read the full article →October 2026
Sikkim Teesta Stage-VI Tunnel Accident and Tunnel Safety
Read the full article →October 2026
Compensation for Death by Stray Cattle: The Supreme Court's Decision
Read the full article →October 2026
The Role of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes: The Mumbai Port Authority Case
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CRS 2024: 99% Registration for the First Time, 2.54 Crore Births
Read the full article →October 2026
WTO's Eighth Trade Policy Review of India: The World's Questions
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Ballari-Guntakal Third and Fourth Lines: Rs 1,264 Crore of Multi-Tracking
Read the full article →October 2026
First Indigenous 350 kg-Thrust Expendable Turbojet: GTRE Design, Azad Manufacture
Read the full article →October 2026
US Section 301 Action on Forced Labour: India in the 10% Tier
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India's First Dengue Vaccine: CDSCO Approval for Qdenga
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AISHE 2023-24: 4.5 Crore Enrolment in Higher Education, GER Reaches 30
Read the full article →October 2026
NIPU-2026: The New Policy for Gas-Based Urea Investment
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Draft Broadcasting Rules, 2026: A Rulebook for TV and Radio
Read the full article →October 2026
India-China Trade: Exports Jump 40.7%, Yet Deficit Hits $105.93 Billion
Read the full article →October 2026
Rail Travel Insurance Now on Counter Tickets Too: From 27 October
Read the full article →October 2026
Special Summary Revision (SSR) 2027: How It Differs from SIR
Read the full article →October 2026
Polymer Currency: Field Trials of ₹10-₹20 Notes Approved
Read the full article →October 2026
Road Accident Report 2024: 1.77 Lakh Deaths
Read the full article →October 2026
A New 'Continuous Monitoring' Mechanism on Stray Dogs: The Supreme Court's Direction
Read the full article →October 2026
PM-VBRY's First Big Distribution: ₹2,400 Crore, 70 Lakh Jobs
Read the full article →October 2026
Ahmedabad Metro Phase 2A: An Outlay of Rs 2,169 Crore
Read the full article →October 2026
The Moment a Stake Is Placed, Even a Game of Skill Becomes Gambling: The Supreme Court on Online Money Gaming
Read the full article →October 2026
Governor's Article 161 Power Prevails Over CrPC Section 432 Policy: Supreme Court
Read the full article →October 2026
TET Compulsory for Working Teachers: Review Dismissed
Read the full article →October 2026
PM Surya Sarovar Yojana: 5,000 MW of Floating Solar with Storage
Read the full article →October 2026
Illegal Sand Mining in the Chambal Sanctuary: Preventive Detention
Read the full article →October 2026
'State of India's Environment 2026': Extreme Weather on 99% of Days
Read the full article →October 2026
Vikram-I's First Private Orbital Flight: Skyroot's Success
Read the full article →October 2026
Supreme Court's Ruling on the CCI Order in the Amazon-Future Case
Read the full article →October 2026
The Validity of SIR: The ADR Judgment and the Limit of Citizenship Inquiry
Read the full article →October 2026
Expanded Khelo India: ₹36,441 Crore
Read the full article →October 2026
ATF Price Stabilisation Fund: Rs.10,000 Crore Relief for Airlines
Read the full article →October 2026
Bhikani Devi Judgment: Pension Without Regularisation Is a Right, Says Supreme Court
Read the full article →October 2026
PM-KISAN's New Term: Rs 3.15 Lakh Crore Until 2030-31
Read the full article →October 2026
Encroachment in Agasthyamalai: Supreme Court's Directions, 5,071 Hectares
Read the full article →October 2026
The Constitutional Claim of Mother-Tongue Education: The Padam Mehta Judgment
Read the full article →October 2026
Samudra Manthan: The Rs 84,084 Crore National Offshore Exploration Scheme and Its Three Layers
Read the full article →October 2026
Replacing Old NCR Trucks and Buses: The ₹9,585 Crore Scheme
Read the full article →October 2026
Mission SEHAT: A Joint ICAR-ICMR Initiative on Agriculture and Health
Read the full article →October 2026
The Chemical Industry: From Chemical Parks to Safe Manufacturing
Read the full article →October 2026
A Married Daughter Too Is 'Family': the Kulsum Nisha Verdict
Read the full article →October 2026
Quad Foreign Ministers' Delhi Meeting: From Hormuz to the South China Sea
Read the full article →October 2026
No GST on Transfer of GIDC Leasehold Rights: The Supreme Court's Course
Read the full article →October 2026
Green Hydrogen Certification Portal Launched: The Mission Enters Its Certification Phase
Read the full article →October 2026
Coal Gasification: Rs 37,500 Crore for the 100 MT Target by 2030
Read the full article →October 2026
Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0: From Pipe to Service
Read the full article →October 2026
Cotton Productivity Mission: The Rs. 5,659 Crore Bet
Read the full article →October 2026
Crisis Sharing in the Cauvery: The CWRC's 4 tmcft Order
Read the full article →October 2026
Zojila Tunnel Breakthrough: Towards Kashmir-Ladakh Connectivity
Read the full article →October 2026
Three-Month Deadline for Reserved Judgments: The Supreme Court's Directions
Read the full article →October 2026
India-New Zealand Strategic Partnership: Roadmap to 2030
Read the full article →October 2026
From WPI to PPI: The Improvement of Wholesale Price Measurement
Read the full article →October 2026
The 17 June Ceasefire MoU and the Reopening of Hormuz
Read the full article →October 2026
ECINET: Every Voter Service in One App
Read the full article →October 2026
IBC Is Not a 'Holy Ganga': The NCLAT Ruling
Read the full article →October 2026
A Roadmap for the Active Management of Tigers: Sariska's 18 Years
Read the full article →October 2026
The Public Examinations (Amendment) Act 2026: Fine, Investigation, Trial
Read the full article →October 2026
IRDAI's 137th Meeting: Policyholder Protection Fund and Penalty-Process Reforms
Read the full article →October 2026
Trial in Absentia: Section 356 of the BNSS
Read the full article →October 2026
Hill Councils in All Seven Districts of Ladakh
Read the full article →October 2026
India-UK CETA in Force: From 15 July 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Labour Picture of 46 Million-plus Cities: PLFS-ASUSE 2025
Read the full article →October 2026
7 Kg Per Person for Antyodaya Families: The NFSA Amendment
Read the full article →October 2026
AI in Courts: The Supreme Court's Draft Regulations, 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
FCRA Amendment Rules 2026: Tighter Oversight of Foreign Contributions
Read the full article →October 2026
Supreme Court Strength from 34 to 38: From Ordinance to Act
Read the full article →October 2026
Record Remittances: Above $110 Billion in One Year
Read the full article →October 2026
A Homemaker's Unpaid Labour: The Supreme Court's 'Loss of Domestic Care' Doctrine
Read the full article →October 2026
28% GST on Online Gaming: The Supreme Court's Decision
Read the full article →October 2026
The Supreme Court's Clarification on Sedition
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Norway Green Strategic Partnership
Read the full article →October 2026
Ban on Sugar Exports: Reasons and Impact
Read the full article →October 2026
Great Nicobar Project: the Calcutta High Court and Tribal Consent
Read the full article →October 2026
15% Duty on Gold: The Price of Saving Foreign Exchange
Read the full article →October 2026
NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled: A Test of Examination Trust
Read the full article →October 2026
Labour Code Rules: The Laws Are Operational, the Wage Formula Is Out
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Vietnam: A New High in Ten Years of Partnership
Read the full article →October 2026
Crime Figures 2024: A Fall in Registrations and a Rise in Cyber Crime
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Belgium: From Traditional Trade to New Partnerships
Read the full article →October 2026
Copy of the FIR: The First Step to Legal Remedy
Read the full article →October 2026
Foreign Investment: Credible Rules Along with Open Doors
Read the full article →October 2026
The Place of Protest: The Test of Rights and Regulation
Read the full article →October 2026
The Handloom: The Heritage Will Survive Only If the Livelihood Does
Read the full article →October 2026
The Strategic Oil Reserve: Preparation Beyond the Tank
Read the full article →October 2026
Trade Talks: The Difference Between Progress and an In-Force Agreement
Read the full article →October 2026
Manufacturing Competitiveness: From Capacity to Value Addition
Read the full article →October 2026
IT Resilience Index: The Market's Digital Health
Read the full article →October 2026
The US Licence on Russian Diesel: Understand the Limits of the Relief
Read the full article →September 2026
Ramanathaswamy Corridor: Architecture and Cultural Dialogue
Read the full article →View the Mains question
Temple corridors are not merely routes for movement but also media of cultural experience. Explain using Ramanathaswamy Temple. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
Explain a corridor's function.
Main Body:
Discuss pillars, ornamentation and the experience of depth.
Conclusion:
Connect regional contributions with conservation needs.
October 2026
Collision at Sea: Testing Confidence Measures
Read the full article →October 2026
100 GW Nuclear Target: The Challenge Beyond Capacity
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Uzbekistan Partnership: Practical Engagement with Central Asia
Read the full article →October 2026
Taiwan and the US-China Talks: Stance, Assurance and Uncertainty
Read the full article →October 2026
Pressure on the Fed: Monetary Independence and the Effects up to India
Read the full article →October 2026
Industrial Production: Different Trends Within the Total Growth
Read the full article →October 2026
"The UN's 'Enemy State' Reference: The Demand for Removal"
Read the full article →October 2026
Bishkek Declaration: From Shared Positions to Practical Cooperation
Read the full article →October 2026
Acting Chief Justice: Continuity and Timely Appointment
Read the full article →October 2026
Invitation to India for a Moon Base: Opportunity and Conditions
Read the full article →October 2026
Europe's Wildfires: What Satellites See and What They Do Not
Read the full article →October 2026
Gender-Sensitive Judgments: Beyond the Language of Rulings
Read the full article →October 2026
Equal Earth Projection: Choose the Map's Purpose First
Read the full article →October 2026
Privacy and the Right to Information: What Changed and What Did Not
Read the full article →October 2026
Tata Sons in RBI's NBFC Upper Layer: What the 2026-27 List Means
Read the full article →October 2026
New American Law on Russia: Economic Pressure up to Third Countries
Read the full article →October 2026
Repo Rate Pause: Reading Supply-Driven Inflation, August 2026
Read the full article →October 2026
Climate Overshoot: A Return Below 1.5C Is Not Guaranteed
Read the full article →October 2026
Mineral Taxation: Uniformity and the Balance of States' Fiscal Power
Read the full article →October 2026
Digital Evidence in Bank Records: Convenience and Reliability
Read the full article →October 2026
The Price of Copper: The Role of Stock Location Alongside Demand
Read the full article →October 2026
The Rajghat Study: New Scientific Questions from Old Antiquities
Read the full article →October 2026
Polysilicon: The Challenge of Strengthening Solar Manufacturing's First Link
Read the full article →October 2026
Insurance Distribution Reform: Sales Incentives and the Customer's Interest
Read the full article →October 2026
School Dress Codes: Discipline, Diversity and Access to Education
Read the full article →October 2026
Tax Incentives and Investment: From Concession to Real Value Addition
Read the full article →October 2026
RDI Fund: Risky Innovation and the Trust of Public Money
Read the full article →October 2026
Guidelines for Access-Controlled High-Speed National Highways
Read the full article →October 2026
Maharashtra Drought Relief: 304 Talukas, a Corrigendum and ₹291.91 Crore
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. With reference to Maharashtra's recent drought relief, consider the following statements:
1. After the corrigendum of 14 October 2026, the final number of drought-declared talukas is 304.
2. Khanapur and Vita are two different talukas.
3. The drought declaration of an area and the decision on individual crop-damage assistance are the same process.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) Statement 1 is correct - the corrigendum stated that Khanapur (Vita) is one taluka, making the final number 304. Statement 2 is wrong - Khanapur (Vita) is one and the same taluka, not two different ones. Statement 3 is wrong - the area's declaration applies relief measures, while each farmer's damage assessment and assistance are decided through a separate process.
Question 2. In the administrative identification of drought, with which stage is 'Trigger-1' associated?
(a) Assessment of initial weather indicators such as a rainfall deficit
(b) Verification of the final panchnamas of crop damage
(c) Approval of crop-loan restructuring
(d) Distribution of drinking-water tanker supply
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (a) In the framework of the Drought Manual 2016, Trigger-1 is the stage of initial weather indicators (such as a rainfall deficit), while Trigger-2 looks at impact indicators such as crop and soil moisture. Maharashtra's latest declarations are also tied to the talukas marked in the kharif season's Trigger-1 assessment.
October 2026
The Meta Child-Safety Settlement: Accountability for Safe Digital Design
Read the full article →October 2026
Cheetah Translocation to Gandhi Sagar: Habitat Is the Test, Not the Count
Read the full article →October 2026
The Bank Employees Dispute: Collective Bargaining and Service Continuity
Read the full article →October 2026
Excess Manufacturing Capacity: Cooperation, Investigation and India's Policy Space
Read the full article →October 2026
Tata Sons Restructuring Proposal: Regulatory Identity and RBI Approval
Read the full article →October 2026
A Personal Guarantor's Insolvency Process: Voting and Decision
Read the full article →October 2026
Global Development Partnership: From Power to Shared Capability
Read the full article →September 2026
Hindi Diwas: Official Language, Consensus and Multilingual Governance
Read the full article →View the Mains question
Official-language policy depends on citizen convenience and respect for linguistic diversity as well as language development. Discuss with reference to India's constitutional framework. (150 words, 10 marks)
Answer Outline
Introduction:
Begin with Article 343.
Main Body:
Discuss Section 3 of the Act and Article 345, diversity and accessible services, simple language, training and quality translation.
Conclusion:
Emphasise consent.
October 2026
Doxxing: From Private Information to Public Fear
Read the full article →October 2026
Nasha Mukt Yuva Campaign: Prevention Needs Treatment and Rehabilitation
Read the full article →October 2026
FCNR(B) Deposits and Swaps: Who Holds the Foreign Currency Risk?
Read the full article →October 2026
The Public Road Outside the House: Not Private Parking but Shared Urban Space
Read the full article →October 2026
El Nino and Food Inflation: From Weather Risk to Market Preparedness
Read the full article →October 2026
Asiatic Lions: The Numbers Rise, but the Risks Remain
Read the full article →October 2026
Detention and Arrest: Beyond the Name, the Lawful Ground and Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Protecting Traditional Craft: Credit, Community and Shared Economic Benefit
Read the full article →October 2026
Assessing Marine Fish Resources: From Today's Catch to the Future
Read the full article →October 2026
EVM Totaliser: Booth-Level Secrecy and the Balance with Count Verification
Read the full article →October 2026
Demat 2.0: Bonds in Digital Form, Same Rights and Risks
Read the full article →October 2026
Transparency in the Collegium: Reasons for Decisions and Public Trust
Read the full article →October 2026
Manipur House-Listing Pause: The Difference Between Census and Citizenship
Read the full article →October 2026
Tribunal Reforms Act 2026: Efficiency with Judicial Independence
Read the full article →October 2026
Ban on Trade from the Settlements: Britain's Initiative and the Law
Read the full article →October 2026
Engagement with Afghanistan: Practical Interest and Principle
Read the full article →October 2026
Nicotine Pouches: No Smoke, Still Risk
Read the full article →October 2026
Funding of Unrecognised Parties: Transparency and Political Opportunity
Read the full article →October 2026
Heat Waves and Disaster Finance: From Recognition to Protected Lives
Read the full article →October 2026
Antimicrobial Resistance: What a 20-Hospital Study Found, and Why the Problem Is Not Just Overuse
Read the full article →October 2026
Semicon 2.0: From Chip Factories to the Whole Ecosystem
Read the full article →October 2026
EPFO's Higher Wage Ceiling: Widening Social Security
Read the full article →November 2026
The E20 Petrol Dispute: Quality Testing and Consumer Trust
Read the full article →View the Mains question
The success of an energy policy such as ethanol blending requires fuel quality and consumer trust alongside environmental goals. Discuss with reference to Karnataka’s testing dispute. (250 words, 15 marks)
Answer Outline
- Introduction: Define E20 and distinguish policy objectives from actual retail fuel quality.
- Body: Present the state and OMC claims as accounts from the respective sides. Explain the need for joint sampling, chain of custody, standard methods, counter-samples and independent retesting. Add vehicle compatibility, complaint resolution and transparent information.
- Conclusion: Describe evidence-based quality assurance as a bridge between policy and consumer protection.
October 2026
Asymmetric Synthesis: How to Select Among Mirror-Image Forms of Molecules
Read the full article →October 2026
IDBI Bank Sale: 60.72% to Fairfax, What Happens After CCEA Approval
Read the full article →October 2026
Legislative Privilege vs Free Speech: A 20-Year Reference Ends as Infructuous
Read the full article →October 2026
Green Energy Corridor Phase-III: New Transmission for 135 GW
Read the full article →October 2026
Dedicated Freight Corridor: From Rail Capacity to a Reliable Supply
Read the full article →October 2026
Neutrino Astronomy: A Signal of the Universe Hidden in Ice
Read the full article →October 2026
Sea-Level Rise: From an International Declaration to Coastal Preparedness
Read the full article →October 2026
Optogenetics: Understanding the Role of Nerve Cells with Light
Read the full article →October 2026
Regional Rural Banks: How Does Local Reach Survive Larger Size?
Read the full article →October 2026
Duty Cut on Edible Oils: Consumer Relief and Farmers' Interests
Read the full article →October 2026
Uttar Pradesh's September Rain: From Weather to Disaster Risk
Read the full article →October 2026
The Decision on the Method of Hanging: Precedent, Dignity and Scientific Evidence
Read the full article →October 2026
Indian Standard Time Rules: One Reference, a Secure Digital System
Read the full article →October 2026
Macro Stabilisation: From Households, Firms and Expectations to Policy
Read the full article →October 2026
The New GDP Series: Five Changes and the Need for Better Measurement
Read the full article →October 2026
Online Caste Abuse: Public View and Digital Investigation
Read the full article →October 2026
Financial Stability: The RBI Governor's Five Priorities and Emerging Risks
Read the full article →October 2026
Drug Price Control: Why the Supreme Court Is Active
Read the full article →October 2026
From Article 370 to the Demand for Statehood: Jammu and Kashmir
Read the full article →October 2026
7.8% GDP Growth in the First Quarter: The Figure's Meaning and Its Limits
Read the full article →October 2026
The Atrocities Prevention Act: The Challenge of Relief and Rehabilitation
Read the full article →October 2026
SCO Meeting in Islamabad: The Distinct Meaning of Multilateral Participation
Read the full article →October 2026
Visa and Permission to Enter: The Legal Meaning of the Border Check
Read the full article →October 2026
Live-in Relationships and Cruelty: the Scope of Protection and the Judgment's Limit
Read the full article →October 2026
The Indian Statistical Institute Bill: Autonomy and Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Online Child Safety: Accountability Along With Ad Revenue
Read the full article →October 2026
Saudi East-West Pipeline: Bypass Route, Shutdown and Restoration
Read the full article →October 2026
AFSPA: Special Powers and Areas of Application, After the September 2026 Extension
Read the full article →October 2026
The Right to Vote: Constitutional and Legal Status - The 2026 Debate
Read the full article →October 2026
12 Years of Make in India: Achievements and Remaining Challenges
Read the full article →October 2026
Testing for Psychoactive Substances in Aviation: Safety and Due Process
Read the full article →October 2026
US-Venezuela Oil Arrangement: Reserves, Rights and Energy Security
Read the full article →October 2026
UPSC's Hundred Years: Judgement and the Spirit of Service Alongside Knowledge in Selection
Read the full article →October 2026
Orangutan Rescue in Odisha: Trafficking Investigation and Animal Welfare
Read the full article →October 2026
AI Avatars in Consular Services: Easy Information, Clear Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Sensitive Forests and Digital Maps: Responsibility with Information
Read the full article →October 2026
Film Certification: The Balance of Child Safety and Expression
Read the full article →October 2026
An Audit of the Green India Mission: From Planting to Ecological Outcomes
Read the full article →October 2026
EOS-05: Why Repeated Viewing Matters in Earth Observation
Read the full article →October 2026
Pipavav Port: Concession Extension and Public Interest
Read the full article →October 2026
Small Enterprises at the District Level: From Data to Local Policy
Read the full article →October 2026
Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme: Rs 62,500 Crore Outlay, and the Difference Between Assembly and Value Addition
Read the full article →October 2026
Open Waste Burning in Cities: Behind the Smoke, a Service Gap
Read the full article →October 2026
Limited Relaxation in FDI: The Need for Capital and the Security Check
Read the full article →October 2026
National PNG Drive 3.0: From Connection to Regular Use
Read the full article →October 2026
NSE Listing and Trading in Its Own Shares: The Question of Conflict of Interest
Read the full article →October 2026
Fertiliser Security: 17 Lakh Tonnes of Urea Imports Are Not Enough for Every Nutrient and Every District
Read the full article →October 2026
Article 142: The Power of Complete Justice and Procedural Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR): Antibiotic Overuse Is Not the Only Problem
Read the full article →October 2026
The Demand for a Gorkhaland State: From the 1907 Petition to the Centre's New Committee
Read the full article →October 2026
Heatwave and Lightning Now Notified Disasters: What the SDRF/NDRF Change Means
Read the full article →October 2026
Diversifying LPG Supply: A New Source and the Risk of a New Dependence
Read the full article →October 2026
Article 124(3): The Distinguished Jurist and the Supreme Court
Read the full article →October 2026
Poompuhar's Marine Exploration: Signs of Trade and Caution
Read the full article →October 2026
Foreign Visits of Chief Ministers: Political Clearance and Cooperative Federalism
Read the full article →October 2026
Public Insurance Registry: The Balance of Reliable Information and Privacy
Read the full article →October 2026
GST Process Reforms: Easier Compliance and Taxpayer Rights
Read the full article →October 2026
The Meaning of Industry in Labour Law: An Old Dispute and the New Code's Limit
Read the full article →October 2026
Indus Waters Dispute: Status of the Treaty, Arbitration and India's Objection
Read the full article →October 2026
e-Transplant: From Digital Waiting Lists to Fair Organ Allocation
Read the full article →October 2026
The Makkah Joint Defence Pact: the Message and India's Diplomacy
Read the full article →October 2026
SME Growth Fund and ITLA: Competitiveness Through Capital and a Coordinated Framework
Read the full article →October 2026
Senior Leadership in the CAPF: Cadre Progression and Deputation
Read the full article →October 2026
Digital Arrest Fraud: An Accountable System From Prevention to Recovery of Money
Read the full article →October 2026
The India-EU Steel Quota: Market Access and Carbon Cost
Read the full article →September 2026
Sea-Level Rise: The UN General Assembly's First Declaration
Read the full article →View the Mains question
"The UNGA's first declaration on sea-level rise is a new basis for both international law and Indian coastal governance." Examine this statement and present an outline of India's adaptation path.
(150 words, 10 marks)
October 2026
UAPA and the Test of Bail: Supreme Court's October 2026 Proceedings
Read the full article →October 2026
Kishau Multipurpose Project: Historic Agreement of Six States
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Taliban Engagement: Five Years After Kabul Fell
Read the full article →October 2026
India-China Boundary Talks: The 25th SR Round's Eight Outcomes
Read the full article →October 2026
Forest Rights Act and the Gram Sabha Consent Dispute: MoTA's Memorandum
Read the full article →October 2026
The Ethanol Blending Debate: Sugar, Feedstock and the Way Forward After E20
Read the full article →October 2026
Census 2027: the New Schedule and Caste Enumeration
Read the full article →October 2026
"Delimitation Debate: Seat Allocation, Federalism and the 2027 Census"
Read the full article →October 2026
Semicon 2.0: All Six Pillars Notified, and the Test Moves from Announcement to Implementation
Read the full article →October 2026
VB-G RAM G Act, 2025: A New Framework in Place of MGNREGA
Read the full article →View the Mains practice
Question 1. With reference to the grievance redressal rules of the rural employment scheme, consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Registration of a complaint can be refused because of language or a procedural deficiency.
Statement 2: A physical complaint has to be entered in the digital system the same day or, if not possible, by the next working day.
Statement 3: A complaint unresolved in fifteen days will be sent to the next higher level.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Statements 1 and 2 only
(b) Statements 2 and 3 only
(c) Statements 1 and 3 only
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (b) Rule 4(5) does not allow refusal of registration because of format, language, manner of submission or a procedural deficiency. Rule 4(3) sets the time-bound digital entry of a physical complaint. Under Rule 6, a case unresolved in fifteen days will go to the next higher level and will remain under monitoring until disposed of.
Question 2. In a grievance redressal system, which of the following is a better indicator of real accountability than the number of complaints closed?
(a) Reducing the facility of complaint registration
(b) Sending every complaint to the next office without examination
(c) Verifying the real relief given to the complainant and the corrective action taken
(d) Rejecting all complaints received on paper
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c) Verifying real relief and correction tests the quality of disposal. A higher number of cases closed on a portal alone does not prove that the underlying problem has been resolved. Multi-channel registration and communication of the outcome strengthen accountability.
October 2026
The SHANTI Act, 2025: A New Legal Framework for the Nuclear Energy Sector
Read the full article →October 2026
CBAM: Carbon Accountability, Trade Tension, and India's Preparedness
Read the full article →October 2026
Suspension of PERM: Skilled Migration and the Indian IT Sector
Read the full article →October 2026
India-Japan Relations: Economic Security and the Challenge of Projects
Read the full article →October 2026
Estimating Manufacturing's GVA: How to Test Differences Between Figures
Read the full article →October 2026
Cross-Border Payments in BRICS: Beyond Fast Technology to Settlement and Trust
Read the full article →October 2026
Weapons in Space: Existing Law, New Capabilities and Shared Security
Read the full article →October 2026
Tiger Reintroduction in Buxa: From Translocation to a Self-Sustaining Population
Read the full article →October 2026
India and the Arctic: From Polar Science to Climate Security
Read the full article →October 2026
CAFE-III: Fleet Fuel Efficiency and the Challenge of Real Savings
Read the full article →October 2026
Assurance of Sustainability Claims: From Greenwashing to Evidence
Read the full article →October 2026
Private Corporate Investment: Beyond Cheap Credit, the Question of Demand and Confidence
Read the full article →October 2026
Quantum-Safe Banking: Preparing for a Future Cryptographic Risk
Read the full article →October 2026
Conserving the Western Ghats: Sensitive Areas and Livelihoods
Read the full article →October 2026
A Cascading Disaster in the Himalayas: From Rock and Ice to a Devastating Flood
Read the full article →October 2026
Account Aggregator Interoperability: RBI's Decision, Bank Deposits in the Consolidated Statement, and Consent
Read the full article →October 2026
Electric Mobility Index: Quality Beyond Rank
Read the full article →October 2026
Haircuts in Insolvency Resolution: Testing Value Beyond the Debt Amount
Read the full article →October 2026
Godawan Release: A Breeding Centre Is Not a Safe Habitat
Read the full article →October 2026
Surrogate Advertising: The Difference Between Brand Extension and Dodging a Ban
Read the full article →October 2026
Leprosy in Children: Early Detection, Treatment and the Fight Against Stigma
Read the full article →October 2026
Solar Power over Canals: Land Savings with Operational Challenges
Read the full article →October 2026
Skill Development: From the Number Trained to Durable Employment
Read the full article →October 2026
Leader of the Opposition in Parliament: Identity, Role and the Ten Percent Confusion
Read the full article →October 2026
UN Reform: Representation, Legitimacy and Capacity to Decide
Read the full article →October 2026
A Strategic Stockpile of Critical Minerals: Security and Capacity
Read the full article →October 2026
Research Funding: Why a Better System Alongside More Money Is Necessary
Read the full article →October 2026
Stubble Management: Workable Options for Farmers Beyond Monitoring
Read the full article →October 2026
Climate Equity: Shared Goals, Different Responsibilities
Read the full article →October 2026
Elephant Corridors: The Shared Question of Habitat Continuity and Human Safety
Read the full article →October 2026
Low-Carbon Cement: Process Change Beyond Energy Improvement
Read the full article →October 2026
PRAGATI: From Project Review to Timely Public Benefit
Read the full article →October 2026
PFAS and Drinking Water: The Challenge of Monitoring and Treating Emerging Pollutants
Read the full article →October 2026
Recognising the Woman Farmer: From Contribution in the Field to Policy Rights
Read the full article →October 2026
Food Labels and Misleading Claims: From Information to the Right Choice for Consumers
Read the full article →October 2026
Ten Years of the Kigali Amendment: The Need for Cooling and the Climate Challenge
Read the full article →October 2026
Blue Bonds: Capital and Accountability for the Maritime Economy
Read the full article →October 2026
The NAMASTE Scheme: From the Safety of Sanitation Workers to a Dignified Livelihood
Read the full article →October 2026
RBI Raises Repo Rate to 5.50%: Stance Turns 'Calibrated Tightening'
Read the full article →October 2026
Protection of Election Commissioners: Independence and Accountability
Read the full article →October 2026
OCI Rights: A Connection with India, but Not Indian Citizenship
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1. Consider the following statements:
I. The Bab el-Mandeb strait connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden
II. Hodeidah is a port city of Yemen
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (c). Both statements are correct - Bab el-Mandeb connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden (and beyond it the Arabian Sea), and Hodeidah is Yemen's major port city on the Red Sea coast, while the evacuation of the 19 seafarers relates to the group stranded in Hodeidah and Sanaa.
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